Proving the Inequality for Angular Momentum Eigenstates

AI Thread Summary
The discussion centers on proving the inequality |<L_{x}>|^{2} + |<L_{y}>|^{2} + |<L_{z}>|^{2} ≤ l^{2} for angular momentum eigenstates. It highlights that the expectation values of L_{x} and L_{y} are zero for eigenstates of L_{z}, while the mean value of L_{z} is m, constrained by -l ≤ m ≤ l. The uncertainty principle is suggested as a tool to relate the operators, but the connection to the inequality remains unclear to some participants. The conversation emphasizes that the inequality is strict unless the state is also an eigenstate of L_{\vec{n}} for some axis. Ultimately, the discussion seeks clarity on the application of these principles in proving the stated inequality.
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Homework Statement



Let \psi be an eigenstate of the operator L^{2} corresponding to the quantum number l, i. e. L^{2} \psi = \hbar l(l+1) \psi. Let &lt;A&gt; = &lt;\psi|A|\psi&gt; denote the expectation value of A in state \psi.

Prove that {|&lt;L_{x}&gt;|}^{2} + {|&lt;L_{y}&gt;|}^{2} + {|&lt;L_{z}&gt;|}^{2}\leq l^{2} and the inequality is strict unless \psi happens to be also an eigenstate of the opeator L_{\vec{n}} for some axis \vec_{n}.

Homework Equations





The Attempt at a Solution

 
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Hi neworder1! :wink:

Show us what you've tried, and where you're stuck, and then we'll know how to help. :smile:
 
Well, I just don't know how to prove it - there's a similar problem in Griffiths' textbook and the hint is to apply the uncertainty principle fo operators Lx, Ly and Lz, but I don't see how it is supposed to help - the uncertainty principle relates the expectation values of {L_{x}}^{2} and {L_{y}}^{2} to {|&lt;L_{z}&gt;|}^{2}.
 
\psi is a common eigenfunction of L^{}2 and L_{}z. The eigenvalues equation for L_{}z is:

L_{}z \psi=m \psi

with : -l \leqm\leq l

the mean vaue of L_{}x and L_{}y on an eigenfunction of L_{}z (\psi) is =0. The mean value of L_{}z on (\psi is =m, and we know that : m^2 <= l^2.
 
We cannot assume that \psi is the eigenstate of L_{z}. All we now is that it is some eigenstate of L^{2}.
 
In the general case it should be:

|<L^2>|=|<(L_x ^2 + L_y ^2 + L_z^2)>|= |<L_x^2>|+|<L_y^2>|+|<L_z^2>| = l^2

The root-mean-square deviation for an osservable is :

<A^2>-<A>^2>=0 <A>^2 <= <A^2>

so:

|<L_x>^2+<L_y>^2+<L_z>^2| <= |<L_x^2>|+|<L_y^2>|+|<L_z^2>| = l^2
 
That's incorrect, because <L^2> = l(l+1), not l^2.
 
Note that \langle\vec L\rangle\!\cdot\!\langle\vec L\rangle is rotationally invariant, so you can choose a convenient coordinate system.

In general, if there is some direction that is preferred for some reason, it's good to choose that to be the z direction.

Is there a preferred direction in this case?
 
Note that if you quantize angular momentum in the z-direction, then an eigenstate of L^2 with eigenvalue l(l+1) is generally a superposition of eigenstates of Lz with eigenvalues m such that |m|<=l. If it is also an eigenvalue of Lz, then it is possible that |m|=l.
 
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