Another Inertial ref frame q :-(

  • Thread starter Thread starter MonstersFromTheId
  • Start date Start date
  • Tags Tags
    Frame Inertial
AI Thread Summary
The discussion centers on the concept of inertial reference frames and the implications of a universe with only one planet. The original poster questions whether an absolute reference frame exists, arguing that the planet's spinning state would lead to observable differences in gravitational attraction. They express confusion over how all inertial frames can be considered equal when one frame could yield incorrect values for gravity. Responses introduce Mach's Principle and general relativity, explaining that any coordinate system can be valid, and local experiments can determine the metric in that system. The conversation encourages further exploration of concepts like general covariance and the Schwarzschild solution to deepen understanding.
MonstersFromTheId
Messages
142
Reaction score
1
It's not that I don't believe that all i.r.f.'s are on an equal footing, it's just that I can't seem to get that to square with the following thought experiment, undoubtedly 'cause I'm getting lost in my own undies here, and I need help getting a handle on this.

Suppose you have a universe with just ONE planet in it (so that there's no outside ref points to determine relative motion of any kind).

Within that universe there would have to be an "absolute" or fundamentally correct reference frame wouldn't there?

I mean, that planet is either spinning, or it's not. Period. If it's spinning, especially if it's spinning really fast, your weight, standing on it's surface, is going to be lower than you weight would be if it were not spinning, right? If you're going to say it's spinning, spinning in relation to what?

Using an inertial reference frame that spun with the planet (i.e. the planet is defined as completely motionless) would lead you to an incorrect value for gravitational attraction. The fact that you don't know that the planet is spinning, 'cause you don't have any reference points to compare to, doesn't change the fact that you wind up with the wrong value for "g" does it? I mean wrong really is wrong right? Sooner or later you're going to notice and have to explain coriollis effects. It's not like spinning or not spinning is a subjective condition. You're either spinning, or your not, and those two conditions are distinct with distinct and observable consequences.

So how can all inertial ref frames stand on equal footing?

I'm choking on my elastic waste band here. HELP!
 
Physics news on Phys.org
MonstersFromTheId said:
Suppose you have a universe with just ONE planet in it (so that there's no outside ref points to determine relative motion of any kind).

Within that universe there would have to be an "absolute" or fundamentally correct reference frame wouldn't there?

Look up "Mach's Principle", the guy has been thinking about exactly that issue in the beginning of the 20th century (or was it the end of the 19th ?).

In general relativity (or any theory that has general covariance) the problem goes away: ANY coordinate system will do, and what happens to be the metric in your preferred coordinate system will determine what are the paths of non-interacting particles. So no more wondering whether your coordinate system is really an "inertial" one: just pick one (for instance attached to the surface of your one and only planet).
Now, by doing local experiments everywhere with non-interacting particles, you can determine the metric expressed in this coordinate system.
If it turns out that it is close to a Schwarzschild solution, then you could say - if you wanted to - that your planet is "not rotating". If it turns out to be another metric, but such that when you apply the coordinate transformation phi --> phi + omega . t, you obtain a metric which looks much more like a Schwarzschild solution, then you MIGHT say as well that "your planet is rotating with rotation speed omega".
But if you find the last statement a non-physical statement in your space, then you can just as well accept that the metric, expressed in the coordinate system attached to your planet's surface, is what it is, without viewing it necessarily as "rotating".

The deviation of the empirically measured metric from a Schwarzschild metric will simply include then the variation of effective acceleration from the poles to the equator.
 
Thanks Vanesch!

This gives me lots of stuff to look up and read about. Many of the terms you're using go way over my head, but what the heck, learning what terms like "general covariance" and "Schwarzschild solution" mean is half the fun here. If I can't find what I need to pick apart your answer, I'll just ask. But for now I want to see how much I can learn on my own by doin' a little googling and reading.

Again, thanks. You've given me a great place to start.
 
Last edited:
The rope is tied into the person (the load of 200 pounds) and the rope goes up from the person to a fixed pulley and back down to his hands. He hauls the rope to suspend himself in the air. What is the mechanical advantage of the system? The person will indeed only have to lift half of his body weight (roughly 100 pounds) because he now lessened the load by that same amount. This APPEARS to be a 2:1 because he can hold himself with half the force, but my question is: is that mechanical...
Hello everyone, Consider the problem in which a car is told to travel at 30 km/h for L kilometers and then at 60 km/h for another L kilometers. Next, you are asked to determine the average speed. My question is: although we know that the average speed in this case is the harmonic mean of the two speeds, is it also possible to state that the average speed over this 2L-kilometer stretch can be obtained as a weighted average of the two speeds? Best regards, DaTario
Some physics textbook writer told me that Newton's first law applies only on bodies that feel no interactions at all. He said that if a body is on rest or moves in constant velocity, there is no external force acting on it. But I have heard another form of the law that says the net force acting on a body must be zero. This means there is interactions involved after all. So which one is correct?

Similar threads

Back
Top