Answer: 10-Card Hand w/ 2 4-of-a-Kinds - No Pairs/3 of a Kinds

  • Thread starter Thread starter toothpaste666
  • Start date Start date
  • Tags Tags
    hand
AI Thread Summary
The discussion centers on calculating the number of 10-card hands from a 52-card deck that contain exactly two 4-of-a-kinds and no pairs or 3-of-a-kinds. The solution involves selecting 2 ranks for the 4-of-a-kinds, which can be done in 13C2 ways, and then choosing 2 different ranks from the remaining 11 for the last two cards, calculated as 11C2. Each of the last two cards can be selected in 4 ways, leading to a total calculation of (13C2)(11C2)(16). Participants confirm that their calculations yield the same result of 68,640, while also discussing potential double counting issues. The final consensus emphasizes the importance of considering the order of selection to avoid overcounting.
toothpaste666
Messages
516
Reaction score
20

Homework Statement


How many 10-card hands are there chosen from a standard 52-card deck in which there are exactly two 4-of-a-kinds; no pairs or 3-of-a-kinds?

The Attempt at a Solution


if there are exactly 2 4 of a kinds that takes up 8 of the 10 cards in the hand and the remaining 2 must be of different kinds since there are no pairs. first we choose 2 kinds for the 4 of a kinds: 13C2 ways . now we have to make sure the last 2 cards are of different kinds so we pick 2 of the remaining 11 kinds: 11C2 ways. now for each of these kinds there are 4 ways to pick a card from them so 4x4 = 16.

the whole process is:
(13C2)(11C2)(16)

is this correct? I want to make sure I am not double counting anything
 
Physics news on Phys.org
Looks good; I got the same answer with the same reasoning before looking at your solution.
 
By using a slightly different reasoning, I got ##{{13}\choose{2}}({{44}\choose{2}}-11{{4}\choose{2}})##
Both our results give 68640, so that looks promising.
 
Another way to finish it off:

Once you have the two fours. The next card can be anything (44 cards) and the last card anything of a different kind (40 cards).
 
PeroK said:
Another way to finish it off:

Once you have the two fours. The next card can be anything (44 cards) and the last card anything of a different kind (40 cards).
This doesn't work because you would double count. Order of the draw doesn't matter, so you have to divide by 2!.

$$16\frac{11!}{2!9!} = \frac{16*11*10}{2} = \frac{44*40}{2}$$
 
Yes, that's what I meant!
 
thanks everyone
 
Back
Top