Are Limits, Integrals, & Series Equal?

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The discussion centers on the equivalence of limits, integrals, and series, specifically the expression {\lim_{n \to \infty} \sum_{i}^{n} f(x_i)Δ x= \int^a_b f(x)\,dx= \sum_{i}^{\infty} f(x_i)Δx}. The contributor argues that these mathematical constructs are not equal unless the term "Δx" approaches zero as the number of terms increases. The importance of the limit process in calculus is emphasized, particularly in relation to the Riemann Integral, which provides a foundational understanding of this relationship.

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  • Understanding of limits in calculus
  • Familiarity with Riemann Integrals
  • Knowledge of series and summation notation
  • Basic concepts of derivatives and the definition of f'(x)
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romsofia
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[tex]{\lim_{n \to \infty} \sum_{i}^{n} f(x_i)Δ x= \int^a_b f(x)\,dx= \sum_{i}^{\infty} f(x_i)Δx}[/tex]

I don't believe they are but I may be wrong.

Thanks for any help.
 
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Updated thread, wasn't as clear before.
 
romsofia said:
[tex]{\lim_{n \to \infty} \sum_{i}^{n} f(x_i)Δ x= \int^a_b f(x)\,dx= \sum_{i}^{\infty} f(x_i)Δx}[/tex]

I don't believe they are but I may be wrong.

Thanks for any help.

The key thing with this is that the "dx" (your triangle x term) also goes to zero and should also be based on your limiting term (in your case the n term).

If your triangle x term does not go to zero as the number of terms goes to infinity, then you'll get nonsensical results.

If you want a better idea of why this happens consider the fact that f'(x) = [f(x+h)-f(x)]/h as h -> 0 in the form of a limit. Now we know that h x f'(x) ~ f(x+h)-f(x). Then if you add up all these h x f'(x) terms, you get your identity you described above.

If you need more information look up information on the Riemann Integral.
 

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