Dreak
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\partialμ\phi\partialμ\phi
and
\partialμ\partialμ\phi
with \phi(x) a scalar field
and
\partialμ\partialμ\phi
with \phi(x) a scalar field
The answer is 'yes' for both equations. If you write out the first expression in terms of the transformed coords, there is another cancellation of ##\Lambda^\mu_{\mu'}\Lambda_\mu^{\mu'}##.Dreak said:So the answer is yes?!
I actually thought the second one was lorentzinvariant because:
\partialμ\partialμ is the d'Alembertian which I thought was Lorentz invariant, while a scalar field is always Lorentz invariant?
And what about the other equation? I'm not sure what the influence of the second scalar field in the equation yields.
Thanks for clarifying that.vanhees71 said:One should, however, be a bit more careful with the indices in the Lorentz transformations and write them also with proper order. Let
{\Lambda^{\mu}}_{\nu}
...