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Are we more equal with or without free will?

  1. Jan 31, 2006 #1
    Shall free will eventually achieve an equalizing influence upon humanity?
     
  2. jcsd
  3. Jan 31, 2006 #2
    If all humans (H) have free will (FW), then all H are equally equal as to (FW). But then, if no (H) have (FW) then logically all H are also equally equal as to (FW). Thus, the answer to your question is: we are equally equal if we all have (FW) or not-(FW). For me, the question of interest as relates to humanity is how humans entangle morally the free will of the self with the free will of the other. I hold that until all humanity discover the proper moral code for this entanglement, humanity will never achieve equality.
     
  4. Jan 31, 2006 #3
    Perhaps free will is a concept which transcends classical logic, in which case your reasoning might not hold. For instance, with free will it may be possible to have the option of believing in, interpreting and following all different ordinary logics, metalogic, or no logic at all.
     
  5. Feb 1, 2006 #4

    hypnagogue

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    Please see the philosophy forum guidelines.
     
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