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Ok I did the cheapskates desperate way out!
Since log (1+x) has a nice Taylor series, I expanded the Taylor series and integrated term by term. Once I did this I noticed the antiderivatve as the Polylogarithm function.
So I get that the integral must evaluate to \sum_{k=1}^{\infty} \frac{(-1)^{k+1}}{k^2}. That looks like an alternating version of the sum of the reciprols of the squares, which i know is \pi^2/6. Thats my best.
Since log (1+x) has a nice Taylor series, I expanded the Taylor series and integrated term by term. Once I did this I noticed the antiderivatve as the Polylogarithm function.
So I get that the integral must evaluate to \sum_{k=1}^{\infty} \frac{(-1)^{k+1}}{k^2}. That looks like an alternating version of the sum of the reciprols of the squares, which i know is \pi^2/6. Thats my best.
