Area between two curves (x = cos(y) and y = cos (x))

  • Thread starter Thread starter igorrn
  • Start date Start date
  • Tags Tags
    Area Cos Curves
igorrn
Messages
2
Reaction score
0
Homework Statement
Give the area marked in the graph (graph as jpg file)
Relevant Equations
x = cos y
y = cos x
x E [0,1] and y E [0,1]
I tried this:
X = cos(y) → y = arccos(x) for x E(-1,1) and y E (0,2)
Then:
There's a point I(Xi,Yi) in which:
Cos(Xi) =Arccos(Xi)
Then I said area1 (file: A1)
A1 = ∫cosx dx definite in 0, Xi
And A2 (file:A2):
A2 = ∫cosy dy definite in 0, Yi
And the overlapping area as A3 (file: A3):
A3 = ∫Yi dx definite in 0, Xi

And total area, then, is:
A = A1 + A2 - A3

I had trouble finding the value of Xi though. The best Approach I could find is 3/4, but I had not found a method further narrow the aprroach answer. I think Xi is an irrational number, I'd want to know if it has a name and definition to it like Pi or Euler's Number to find it.
I'd want to know if there's another method to calculating this area also.
 

Attachments

  • Graph.jpg
    Graph.jpg
    32 KB · Views: 232
  • A1.jpg
    A1.jpg
    40.1 KB · Views: 245
  • A2.jpg
    A2.jpg
    34.4 KB · Views: 247
  • A3.jpg
    A3.jpg
    40.9 KB · Views: 267
Physics news on Phys.org
By symmetry, the area you want is <br /> 2 \int_0^{X} \cos x - x \,dx where X = \cos X. Unfortunately that can only be solved numerically.
 
pasmith said:
By symmetry, the area you want is <br /> 2 \int_0^{X} \cos x - x \,dx where X = \cos X. Unfortunately that can only be solved numerically.
Thank you very much, but isn't it?
\int_0^{X} \ 2cos x - X \,dx
where X = \cos X.
To discount the overlapping area?
And could you explain me what is "numerically'?
(The int should be the integral symbol. Really don't know how to use it)
 
Last edited by a moderator:
No. There is no overlapping area if your first .jpg is the correct area. The integral$$
A = 2\int_0^p \cos x - x~dx$$is correct (here ##p## is the value where ##\cos p = p##). What he means by having to do it numerically is the fact that even though you can integrate to get $$A =2\sin(p) - p^2$$you still have to find ##p## numerically. (About 0.7390851332).
 
igorrn said:
Thank you very much, but isn't it?
int_0^{X} \ 2cos x - X \,dx
where X = \cos X.
To discount the overlapping area?
Note that ##X \ne x##. Either method will get you the same answer.
 
igorrn said:
(The int should be the integral symbol. Really don't know how to use it)
It's this: \int
As a definite integral, \int_{a}^{b}. Note that you don't need the braces for a limit of integration that is one character, but you do need them for two or more characters. I.e., \int_0^{2 \pi}
 
There are two things I don't understand about this problem. First, when finding the nth root of a number, there should in theory be n solutions. However, the formula produces n+1 roots. Here is how. The first root is simply ##\left(r\right)^{\left(\frac{1}{n}\right)}##. Then you multiply this first root by n additional expressions given by the formula, as you go through k=0,1,...n-1. So you end up with n+1 roots, which cannot be correct. Let me illustrate what I mean. For this...
Back
Top