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A Artinian rings are noetherian, why does this make sense?

  1. Mar 20, 2016 #1
    Can somebody explain why this shouldn't surprise me? Apparently it's a corollary of the Akizuki–Hopkins–Levitzki theorem but the proof of that theorem isn't helping me really understand what's going on.
     
  2. jcsd
  3. Mar 25, 2016 #2
    Thanks for the post! This is an automated courtesy bump. Sorry you aren't generating responses at the moment. Do you have any further information, come to any new conclusions or is it possible to reword the post?
     
  4. Mar 26, 2016 #3
    Nope. The problem is that the standard proof for why artinian rings are noetherian is a corolarry to a theorem that is beyond me at this point; I'm looking for both an independent proof and an intuitive understanding.
     
  5. Mar 26, 2016 #4

    mathwonk

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