Is there an algebraic explanation for the identity atan(a/b) + atan(b/a) = pi/2?

  • Thread starter Thread starter Nick89
  • Start date Start date
AI Thread Summary
The identity atan(a/b) + atan(b/a) = pi/2 can be visually demonstrated using a right triangle, where the angles corresponding to the sides a and b sum to pi/2. An algebraic approach involves using the tangent addition formula, where tan(α + β) leads to an undefined result when the denominator approaches zero, indicating that α + β equals pi/2. The discussion highlights the importance of understanding limits when dealing with division by zero in this context. Participants express curiosity about the algebraic proof and the handling of potential singularities in the calculations. Overall, the identity is confirmed through both geometric and algebraic reasoning.
Nick89
Messages
553
Reaction score
0
Hey,

I came across this 'identity' today and was wondering if there was any algebraical explanation to this...

Basically I had to show:
\arctan( \frac{a}{b}) + \arctan( \frac{b}{a}) = \frac{\pi}{2}
(And if necessary, (a,b) > 0 )

It is pretty easy to show when you draw a right triangle:
Code:
     /|
    /c|
   /  |
  /   |a
 /d   |
/_____|
   b
(a and b are the sides while c and d are the angles)

Now, \tan d = \frac{a}{b} and \tan c = \frac{b}{a} and because it is a right triangle, c + d = \frac{\pi}{2} = \arctan( \frac{a}{b}) + \arctan( \frac{b}{a}).But I was wondering if you can also proof this algebraically?
I typed it into Maple and got \frac{1}{2} \text{signum}(\frac{a}{b}) \pi. If my memory serves me well, signum is always 1 if a/b > 0 and -1 if a/b < 0, so if a/b > 0 this holds...

So yeah, just wondering... I can't see any way to do it algebraically...
 
Mathematics news on Phys.org
Let tan\alpha =\frac{a}{b} and tan\beta =\frac{b}{a}

Then consider

tan(\alpha + \beta)=\frac{tan\alpha +tan\beta}{1-tan\alpha tan\beta}

and what that gives.
 
Thanks, I understand now!

\tan \alpha = \frac{a}{b} \text{ , } \tan \beta = \frac{b}{a}
\arctan \frac{a}{b} + \arctan \frac{b}{a} = \alpha + \beta

\tan(\alpha + \beta) = \frac{ \frac{a}{b} + \frac{b}{a} }{ 1 - \frac{ab}{ab}} = \frac{ \frac{a}{b} + \frac{b}{a} }{0} = \infty*

If \tan(\alpha + \beta) = \infty then \alpha + \beta = \frac{\pi}{2}.

*Can you say this so easily? Shouldn't you handle the divide by zero better? I know if a denominator tends to zero, the fraction tends to infinity, but you can't divide by 0 exactly... I also can't see any way I could take a limit here?
 
Insights auto threads is broken atm, so I'm manually creating these for new Insight articles. In Dirac’s Principles of Quantum Mechanics published in 1930 he introduced a “convenient notation” he referred to as a “delta function” which he treated as a continuum analog to the discrete Kronecker delta. The Kronecker delta is simply the indexed components of the identity operator in matrix algebra Source: https://www.physicsforums.com/insights/what-exactly-is-diracs-delta-function/ by...
Suppose ,instead of the usual x,y coordinate system with an I basis vector along the x -axis and a corresponding j basis vector along the y-axis we instead have a different pair of basis vectors ,call them e and f along their respective axes. I have seen that this is an important subject in maths My question is what physical applications does such a model apply to? I am asking here because I have devoted quite a lot of time in the past to understanding convectors and the dual...
Back
Top