Average momentum squared of Psi(100) of hydrogen atom

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around calculating the average momentum squared, , for the wave function ψ100 of the hydrogen atom. The problem involves the application of quantum mechanics principles and the Laplace operator in spherical coordinates.

Discussion Character

  • Mathematical reasoning, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • The original poster attempts to compute using the provided wave function and integration, but encounters a result of zero, leading to questions about the validity of their calculations. Some participants point out the importance of correctly applying the Laplace operator in spherical coordinates.

Discussion Status

Participants are actively exploring the implications of the calculations and correcting assumptions about the Laplace operator. One participant indicates that after addressing the omission in their calculations, the results became more reasonable, suggesting a productive direction in the discussion.

Contextual Notes

The original poster expresses concern that a result of zero for may not be physically meaningful, indicating a potential misunderstanding or miscalculation in the context of quantum mechanics.

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Homework Statement



Calculate <p2> for ψ100 of the hydrogen atom

Homework Equations



ψ100 = 1/(√pi) (1/a0)3/2 e-r/a0

0 r n e-B rdr = n!/Bn+1

p2 = -hbar ∇2 = -hbar2 (r2 d2/dr2 +2 r d/dr) (ψ does not depend on ø or θ)

The Attempt at a Solution

<p2> = ∫ψ*(p2ψ)dV
∫dV = 4pi0r2dr

<p2> = ∫1/(√pi) (1/a0)3/2 e-r/a0 (-hbar2 (r2 d2/dr2 +2 r d/dr) 1/(√pi) (1/a0)3/2 e-r/a0)dV

<p2> = -4 hbar2/ a03 ∫r2 e-r/a0 ( (r/a0)2 - 2r/a0 ) e-r/a0 dr

<p2> = -4 hbar2/ a03 ∫e-2r/a0 ( r4/a02 - 2r3/a0 ) drThe problem that I am running into is that I am calculating the integral to be 0:

B= 2/a0 n1= 4 n2=3

∫e-2r/a0 ( r4/a02 - 2r3/a0 ) dr = (4!/ (a02 (2/a0)5) - (2*3!/ (a0 (2/a0)4 = (24a03/32 - 12a03/16) =0

Am I doing something wrong, because I don't think <p2> would be 0 (that would indicate that the momentum is always 0)?
 
Last edited:
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Simon Bridge said:
First thing I noticed:

Going by the laplace operator in spherical-polar coordinates:
re: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Laplace_operator#Three_dimensions $$\nabla^2\psi(r)=\frac{1}{r^2}\frac{\partial}{\partial r}r^2 \frac{\partial}{\partial r}\psi(r)$$

Thank you. I left out the 1/r^2 in the laplace operator. When I redid the problem after fixing the operator, the answer I am now getting makes sense.
 
Easy to do - there are so many examples where you don't need it.
 

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