peripatein
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I am not sure why only the second term counts/is used. I could make an educated guess, or try to at least. Is it because around the point of stable equilibrium the first derivative is zero as the potential obtains its minimum and the first term is subtracted from the potential to obtain the "effective" potential? Am I close?
The second part of that problem, with the hollow cylinder and the ball, asks for the angular frequency of the small oscillations supposing that this time the ball slips and doesn't roll.
The second part of that problem, with the hollow cylinder and the ball, asks for the angular frequency of the small oscillations supposing that this time the ball slips and doesn't roll.