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Basic Circuit Analysis - mutual induc

  1. Jun 3, 2006 #1
    This problem seems so simple, but I CANNOT get the right answer.


    Here is the work I've done so far:
    [​IMG]

    I've also attached the work, but if anyone wants to check the links before it gets approved, please be my guest.

    The books says that the correct answer is:

    V0 = 2.24 at an angle of -153.43

    I don't understand what I'm doing wrong !
     

    Attached Files:

  2. jcsd
  3. Jun 3, 2006 #2
    Not exactly the most helpful tip, but you will get the answer in the book (according to the method you used) if the mutual inductance is 2j instead of j.
     
  4. Jun 4, 2006 #3
    I think you mixed the inductance in your equations. I agree with doodle, if you use j2 you'll get the answer in the back of the book.
     
  5. Jun 4, 2006 #4
    Why would the mutual inductance term be 2j?

    Isn't M defined by as [itex] j1\omega [/itex] ?

    If I use 2j I get the book's answer, but I don't understand why I should use 2j.
     
  6. Jun 5, 2006 #5
    I am not sure why you should say that M is defined as j1w. Or perhaps you are trying to say that the question explicitly gave M = j1w?

    A quick browse in my Circuit Theory textbook reveals that M depends on the coupling coefficient, k, and then M = k sqrt(L1*L2).
     
  7. Jun 5, 2006 #6
    Oh sorry about the latex confusion. Yes, the question explicitly said that [itex] M = j1\Omega [/itex]

    I typed a small omega instead of a big one.
     
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