Basketball Dribbling: Does the Ball Come to Rest?

  • Thread starter Thread starter bigseths
  • Start date Start date
  • Tags Tags
    Basketball
AI Thread Summary
The discussion centers on the interpretation of basketball dribbling rules, particularly whether the ball comes to rest when dribbled or after hitting the backboard. Officiating rules state that if the ball rests in a player's hand, it constitutes a violation. Participants debate the nuances of "palming" and how it is enforced differently in high school, college, and professional basketball. There is a call for a more flexible interpretation of the rules, suggesting that enforcement should focus on whether an advantage is gained rather than strict adherence to the letter of the law. Overall, the conversation highlights the complexities of officiating and the subjective nature of rule enforcement in basketball.
bigseths
Messages
4
Reaction score
0
Hello all,
I officiate high school and college basketball. One of our rules concerning a dribble states that any time the ball comes to rest in a dribbler's hand, it is a violation. I won't concern you with all of the details of our argument, but I will pose a question that if answered like I believe it will be, will support my side.

When dribbling a basketball, or even slapping the ball down with your hand, does the ball come to rest everytime it is pushed back to the ground? However short a time it may be.

Or when a ball is shot and bounds off of the backboard, does the ball "come to rest" on the backboard before changing direction?

Thanks in advance for your responses, Seth Smiley
 
Physics news on Phys.org
The ball is always at rest with respect to the hand during the collision.
They might mean that the hand cannot also be at rest with respect to the ground, but this also happens in any collision with the hand at rest.
When I played, the rule was that no part of your hand could be under the ball (called "palming"). Even this rule is routinely ignored in the NBA, especially for stars.
 
I completely understand the rule, the powers that be want us to start enforcing it to keep "stars" from gaining an advantage. My view on the issue is we should leave well enough alone. If a player "palms" the ball gaining an advantage, we should call it, if not, leave it alone. I started my argument to show the silliness of the rule. That we should interpret the rule and apply it when necessary. Thanks though
 
In the pro's, unless the player "palms" the ball upwards, there's no call. I've seen a lot of player "dribble" with an almost horizontal push on the ball, virtually carrying the ball during the dribble, during a fast break, and I've never seen this called "palming". I was not aware of any rule regarding the ball coming to rest, just a rule about "palming" the basketball, or using both hands on any dribble other than the first one after receiving a pass or rebounding.
 
Perhaps the rule applies to actually holding the ball in the grip of a large hand.
This would keep it at rest longer than during a collision.
 
The rope is tied into the person (the load of 200 pounds) and the rope goes up from the person to a fixed pulley and back down to his hands. He hauls the rope to suspend himself in the air. What is the mechanical advantage of the system? The person will indeed only have to lift half of his body weight (roughly 100 pounds) because he now lessened the load by that same amount. This APPEARS to be a 2:1 because he can hold himself with half the force, but my question is: is that mechanical...
Hello everyone, Consider the problem in which a car is told to travel at 30 km/h for L kilometers and then at 60 km/h for another L kilometers. Next, you are asked to determine the average speed. My question is: although we know that the average speed in this case is the harmonic mean of the two speeds, is it also possible to state that the average speed over this 2L-kilometer stretch can be obtained as a weighted average of the two speeds? Best regards, DaTario
Some physics textbook writer told me that Newton's first law applies only on bodies that feel no interactions at all. He said that if a body is on rest or moves in constant velocity, there is no external force acting on it. But I have heard another form of the law that says the net force acting on a body must be zero. This means there is interactions involved after all. So which one is correct?
Back
Top