Binary operation on equivalence classes

AI Thread Summary
The discussion centers on proving the existence of a binary operation on equivalence classes defined by an equivalence relation on a set M. The initial approach involves expressing the operation in terms of equivalence classes, leading to the conclusion that the operation can be represented as the union of the equivalence classes of its operands. Concerns are raised about the well-definedness of the operation, emphasizing that the choice of representatives from the equivalence classes should not affect the outcome. Participants suggest clarifying steps that may have caused confusion and recommend focusing on the well-defined nature of the operation. The conclusion is that the proof can be streamlined based on the provided definitions and properties.
PhysicsRock
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Homework Statement
Given a set ##M## and an equivalence relation ##\sim## on ##M##, for ##a,a^{\prime},b,b^{\prime} \in M## with ##a \sim a^{\prime}## and ##b \sim b^{\prime}## with a binary operation ##*## such that ##a * b \sim a^{\prime} * b^{\prime}## prove that a binary operation ##\overline{*}## exists that fulfills ##[x * y] = [x] \overline{*} [y]##.
Relevant Equations
None else.
So, my approach and solution are as follows:

$$

[x * y] = \{ z \in M : z \sim (x * y) \}

$$

Since we know that ##a * b \sim a^{\prime} * b^{\prime}## we can rewrite ##z## as ## x^{\prime} * y^{\prime} ##. Plugging this in yields:

$$

[x * y] = \{ x^{\prime}, y^{\prime} \in M : x^{\prime} * y^{\prime} \sim x * y \}

$$

We are also given that if ##x^{\prime} * y^{\prime} \sim x * y## then ##x^{\prime} \sim x## and ##y^{\prime} \sim y##. So once again, we can rewrite the expression to obtain:

$$
[x * y] = \{ x^{\prime}, y^{\prime} \in M : x^{\prime} \sim x, y^{\prime} \sim y \}
$$

With ##x^{\prime}## and ##y^{\prime}## now essentially separated, we can break apart the set into two individual ones with

$$
[x*y] = \{ x^{\prime} \in M : x^{\prime} \sim x \} \bigcup \{ y^{\prime} \in M : y^{\prime} \sim y \}
$$

Now one observes that the two sets are the equivalence classes for ##x## and ##y## respectively. So, we can conclude that

$$
[x*y] = [x] \cup [y]
$$

and comparing this to the assignment, we obtain that ##\overline{*}## is equivalent to the union of sets. Hence, there exists a binary operation fulfilling the required demands.

Now, am I correct here or did I screw up at some point?
 
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PhysicsRock said:
Homework Statement:: Given a set ##M## and an equivalence relation ##\sim## on ##M##, for ##a,a^{\prime},b,b^{\prime} \in M## with ##a \sim a^{\prime}## and ##b \sim b^{\prime}## with a binary operation ##*## such that ##a * b \sim a^{\prime} * b^{\prime}## prove that a binary operation ##\overline{*}## exists that fulfills ##[x * y] = [x] \overline{*} [y]##.
I wonder whether something has been lost in translation here. I suspect what you are asked to prove is that the binary operation defined by ##[x] \overline{*} [y] = [x * y]## is well-defined. In the sense that it doesn't matter which members of the equivalence classes ##[x]## and ##[y]## you choose, you get the same result.
PhysicsRock said:
$$

[x * y] = \{ z \in M : z \sim (x * y) \}

$$

Since we know that ##a * b \sim a^{\prime} * b^{\prime}## we can rewrite ##z## as ## x^{\prime} * y^{\prime} ##. Plugging this in yields:

$$

[x * y] = \{ x^{\prime}, y^{\prime} \in M : x^{\prime} * y^{\prime} \sim x * y \}

$$
This doesn't look right. Instead:
$$

[x * y] = \{ z: z \sim x * y \}

$$
PhysicsRock said:
$$
[x*y] = \{ x^{\prime} \in M : x^{\prime} \sim x \} \bigcup \{ y^{\prime} \in M : y^{\prime} \sim y \}
$$
I don't understand what you are doing here.
PhysicsRock said:
Now one observes that the two sets are the equivalence classes for ##x## and ##y## respectively. So, we can conclude that

$$
[x*y] = [x] \cup [y]
$$

and comparing this to the assignment, we obtain that ##\overline{*}## is equivalent to the union of sets. Hence, there exists a binary operation fulfilling the required demands.

Now, am I correct here or did I screw up at some point?
I don't follow this either.
 
PeroK said:
I wonder whether something has been lost in translation here. I suspect what you are asked to prove is that the binary operation defined by is well-defined. In the sense that it doesn't matter which members of the equivalence classes and you choose, you get the same result.
Yes, you are right. I quoted the statement from my memory and forgot the well-definedness. In that case, is it still recommendable to make use of set notation or should I retreat to use elements?

If it still makes sense, should I explain why I carried out certain steps you said you didn't understand?
 
PhysicsRock said:
Yes, you are right. I quoted the statement from my memory and forgot the well-definedness. In that case, is it still recommendable to make use of set notation or should I retreat to use elements?

If it still makes sense, should I explain why I carried out certain steps you said you didn't understand?
The result should follow quite quickly from what you are given.
 
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