Mathick
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Hello!
We know from 'Binomial Expansion' that [math](1+x)^n=1+nx+\frac{n(n-1)}{2!}x^2+...[/math] for [math] \left| x \right|<1 [/math]. Why doesn't it work for other values of [math]x[/math]? I can't understand this condition. I would be really grateful for clear explanation!
We know from 'Binomial Expansion' that [math](1+x)^n=1+nx+\frac{n(n-1)}{2!}x^2+...[/math] for [math] \left| x \right|<1 [/math]. Why doesn't it work for other values of [math]x[/math]? I can't understand this condition. I would be really grateful for clear explanation!