Boltzmann Distribution: Feynman's treatment of p-n junction

Click For Summary
SUMMARY

The discussion centers on Feynman's treatment of the p-n junction in Vol III of the Feynman Lectures, specifically how he derives the diode characteristic equation using the Boltzmann distribution. Participants clarify that in semiconductors, under certain conditions, Fermi-Dirac statistics approximate Maxwell-Boltzmann statistics due to the distance of conduction and valence bands from the Fermi level. The density of charge carriers (N) is confirmed to be the relevant quantity in this context, and the distinction between Fermi-Dirac and Bose-Einstein statistics is emphasized. Overall, the derivation is validated as a sufficient approximation for understanding charge carrier behavior in semiconductors.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of semiconductor physics
  • Familiarity with statistical mechanics concepts
  • Knowledge of Fermi-Dirac and Maxwell-Boltzmann statistics
  • Basic grasp of p-n junction theory
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the Boltzmann distribution in the context of semiconductor physics
  • Learn about Fermi-Dirac statistics and their applications in solid state physics
  • Explore the derivation of the diode characteristic equation in depth
  • Investigate the implications of charge carrier density in semiconductor devices
USEFUL FOR

Students and professionals in physics, electrical engineering, and materials science who are interested in semiconductor behavior and statistical mechanics.

strauser
Messages
37
Reaction score
5
In Vol III, 14-4 and 14-5 of the Feynman Lectures (http://www.feynmanlectures.caltech.edu/III_14.html), Feynman gives a discussion of the p-n junction, in which he derives the diode characteristic equation via a nice, simple and convincing application of the Boltzmann distribution to the relative numbers of charge carriers on either side of a junction with a potential difference V.

I am however completely confused: do electrons/holes in a semi-conductor not obey Fermi-Dirac statistics? If so, why does he not mention or rely on this, and if so, how is his derivation valid?

I'll point out that I know not a great deal about solid state physics, or stat. mech., so the explanation may be utterly trivial.
 
Physics news on Phys.org
In a semiconductor, the conduction and valence bands are far from the Fermi level in units of kT. In this limit, Fermi-Dirac statistics are very closely equal to Maxwell-Boltzmann statistics:

Fermi-Dirac: N \propto \frac{1}{\exp(\frac{E-E_F}{kT})+1}

But in this case \exp(\frac{E-E_F}{kT}) >> 1, so we can ignore the 1 in the denominator. It then reduces to Maxwell-Boltzmann statistics to a sufficient approximation.
 
Last edited:
  • Like
Likes   Reactions: strauser
phyzguy said:
In a semiconductor, the conduction and valence bands are far from the Fermi level in units of kT. In this limit, Fermi-Dirac statistics are very closely equal to Maxwell-Boltzmann statistics:

Fermi-Dirac: N \propto \frac{1}{\exp(\frac{E-E_F}{kT})-1}

OK, thanks, things are slightly clearer.

However, I'm not sure either what your ##N## or the expression on the RHS are. Is ##N## related to the density of states (i.e. what I'd call ##N(E)##), or is it the concentration of charge carriers? And the expression on the RHS looks suspiciously like the Fermi function, but that has a +1.

Could you clarify this a bit more, please?

But in this case \exp(\frac{E-E_F}{kT}) >> 1, so we can ignore the 1 in the denominator. It then reduces to Maxwell-Boltzmann statistics to a sufficient approximation.

Right. So is it correct to say that, to a very good approximation, electrons in the conduction band of a semiconductor obey Maxwell-Boltzmann statistics, which is Feynman's tacit starting point?
 
Right, the +1 vs -1 is my error. It is -1 for Bose-Einstein and +1 for Fermi-Dirac. I corrected my original post. In my post, N is the density of charge carriers.

strauser said:
So is it correct to say that, to a very good approximation, electrons in the conduction band of a semiconductor obey Maxwell-Boltzmann statistics, which is Feynman's tacit starting point?

Yes.
 
phyzguy said:
Right, the +1 vs -1 is my error. It is -1 for Bose-Einstein and +1 for Fermi-Dirac. I corrected my original post. In my post, N is the density of charge carriers.

OK, it's clear that this is trivial. Thanks. In fact, the only relevant text I have available (Streetman, Solid State Electronic Devices) does in fact treat this topic but without using the name Boltzmann anywhere - I skimmed the section in question without really noticing the result, which looks to be fairly important, I'd guess.
 

Similar threads

  • · Replies 4 ·
Replies
4
Views
4K
  • · Replies 27 ·
Replies
27
Views
30K
Replies
1
Views
2K
  • · Replies 7 ·
Replies
7
Views
7K
  • · Replies 19 ·
Replies
19
Views
18K