Buffon's Needle problem (Geo Prob)

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The discussion revolves around the Buffon's Needle problem, specifically clarifying question 1, which involves simulating needle drops to estimate the probability of hitting a line. Participants explain that the problem requires assuming 1,000 needle drops with angles uniformly distributed between 0 and π. The area calculations involve renormalizing by multiplying areas by 2/π, leading to an approximate probability of 2/π for a hit. A participant expresses confusion over the necessity of assuming a value for π in the approximation process. Additionally, there is a request for an Excel model to facilitate calculations related to cases where the needle length exceeds the distance between lines.
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http://www.mste.uiuc.edu/reese/buffon/buffon.html#questions

can someone explain problem "A" for me please. this isn't for school or homework but just something that i don't understand and would like to know where I'm going wrong.

how would i go about solving question "A"?

thanks
 
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There is no question A. Did you mean q.1?
 
EnumaElish said:
There is no question A. Did you mean q.1?
yes that's what i mean
 
It seems to me that q.1 is asking you to assume 1,000 needle drops with thetas distributed evenly between 0 and pi.

First, renormalize by multiplying all areas by 2/pi. After renormalization the area of the large rectangle is 1 and the shaded area is 2/pi. Prob{hit} = (2/pi)/1 = 2/pi as before.

Now you are to approximate the shaded area by calculating the area for 1,000 little rectangles. The 1st little rectangle has area 0. The 2nd has area = base x height x renormalization = (pi/1000) x sin(pi/1000)/2 x 2/pi = sin(pi/1000)/1000. The 3rd has area = (pi/1000) x sin(2pi/1000)/2 x 2/pi = sin(2pi/1000)/1000. The Nth has area = (pi/1000) x sin((N-1)pi/1000)/2 x 2/pi = sin((N-1)pi/1000)/1000.

Sum area = \right.\sum_{N=1}^{1000}\sin\left(\frac{(N-1)\pi}{1000}\right)\left/1000

It seems to me like this sum area is the approximate 2/pi that the question is after. (This still doesn't make a whole lot of sense to me because pi is parametric in the formula itself; so one must already assume an exact value for it before one can approximate it.)
 
I am working on a practical application of Buffon's Needle for when the length of the needle is greater than the distance between the lines.

I am looking for an EXCEL model to calculate the probability.

Thanking You in Advance.
 
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