Calculating Instantaneous Flow in a Siphon - Help Needed!

Lorna18
Messages
2
Reaction score
0
Fluid mechanics (urgent help)

i got stuck in the middle... guess i could do with some help!


A siphon has uniform cross sectional area of 10^(-3) sq.m consider that water has no viscisity. A tank has height upto 80m. half of it contains water. the end of the siphon inside the tank is 20m above the base. the other end of the siphon fully pre-filledwith water is 30m above the base. find the instantaneous rate of flow out of water from the tank.
take g=9.8m/sec^2.

a) 14 l/sec b) 19.8 l/sec c) 28 l/sec d) no out flow, rather in flow will occur.



Homework Equations





The Attempt at a Solution


can't exactly understand how to approach the problem!
 
Physics news on Phys.org
Lorna18 said:
A siphon has uniform cross sectional area of 10^(-3) sq.m consider that water has no viscisity. A tank has height upto 80m. half of it contains water. the end of the siphon inside the tank is 20m above the base. the other end of the siphon fully pre-filledwith water is 30m above the base. find the instantaneous rate of flow out of water from the tank.
take g=9.8m/sec^2.

Hi Lorna18! :smile:

Hint: if you want to use a Bernoulli's equation , draw a streamline with both ends at the same pressure. :wink:
 
Thread 'Need help understanding this figure on energy levels'
This figure is from "Introduction to Quantum Mechanics" by Griffiths (3rd edition). It is available to download. It is from page 142. I am hoping the usual people on this site will give me a hand understanding what is going on in the figure. After the equation (4.50) it says "It is customary to introduce the principal quantum number, ##n##, which simply orders the allowed energies, starting with 1 for the ground state. (see the figure)" I still don't understand the figure :( Here is...
Thread 'Understanding how to "tack on" the time wiggle factor'
The last problem I posted on QM made it into advanced homework help, that is why I am putting it here. I am sorry for any hassle imposed on the moderators by myself. Part (a) is quite easy. We get $$\sigma_1 = 2\lambda, \mathbf{v}_1 = \begin{pmatrix} 0 \\ 0 \\ 1 \end{pmatrix} \sigma_2 = \lambda, \mathbf{v}_2 = \begin{pmatrix} 1/\sqrt{2} \\ 1/\sqrt{2} \\ 0 \end{pmatrix} \sigma_3 = -\lambda, \mathbf{v}_3 = \begin{pmatrix} 1/\sqrt{2} \\ -1/\sqrt{2} \\ 0 \end{pmatrix} $$ There are two ways...
Back
Top