Please Do Not Take "Doc Al" Easily!
Doc Al said:
The way I read the problem (reread it, actually), what they are looking for is the speed of the C.M. at the "instant" of the collision, which I take to be that instant where the midpoint of AC is momentarily at rest. At that instant the rod can be viewed as in pure rotation about the impact point.
"Doc Al" is the PF Mentor and a recognized homework helper. I would suggest you all, not to take him casually. I think this problem was explained best by him.
(I hope you people will agree with me that arriving at a result is one thing, properly explaining every step of yours is a different thing!)
Let me explain myself in the context of this problem.
Everyone else, other than "Doc Al", had to make some assumption or the other to solve this problem. He alone, gave a different look to the problem, and I think he did so brilliantly!
The question was
"What is the instantaneous speed of the C.M. of the stick?". And, he took that instant of the collision when the point of contact came at rest. He didn't demand anything extra-ordinary because, that is what most of us will define as the instant of collision. (Although, collision happens over a short interval of time.)
And, going by the method he suggested (conservation of angular momentum about the fixed nail) one can easily arrive at the result:
M*v*(l/4) = M*v
f*(l/4) + M*w*(l^2)/12
and since the point of contact on the rod is at rest, v
f - w*(l/4) = 0.
Solving the above two, we get v
f = 3*v/7
But those, who do not agree with the proposition of "Doc Al", will run short of information and they have, knowingly or unknowingly, made some assumption or the other to derive at the result.
Let us try to do the problem without any assumption of physics. If the question meant to ask final velocity of the centre of the mass of the rod, the solution would have been slightly different.
I shall work with variables and substitute the values at last, in order to get deeper insight on the problem.
Let us denote the nail by N and the point on the rod which makes contact with the nail be denoted by D. (I am using the notations used by you people to avoid any confusion.)
Further, although CD = l/4 is given, I assume CD = l/k. Please note that, for this problem k = 4.
I, further, assume that coefficient of restitution = e.
Conservation of angular momentum of the rod about N (because the impulse on the rod during collision passes through N, and therefore torque-impulse about N is zero) gives:
(l/k)*M*v = (l/k)*M*v
f + M*w*(l^2)/12
and, using "e" between N and D,
w*(l/k) - v
f = e*v
Solving the above two equations, we get:
v
f = v*{12 - (k^2)*e}/{12 + (k^2)}.
Assumption I : It is perfectly elastic collision.
Then, e = 1 and k = 4.
We get, v
f = -v/7. (As was obtained by you people.)
Assumption II : It is perfectly inelastic colliion.
Then, e = 0 and k = 4.
We get, v
f = 3*v/7 (As was obtained by you people.)
So, knowingly or unknowingly, you people (other than "Doc Al") were using either of the assumptions. Please, note that, if you don't use the assumption you will get stuck with one unknown variable, here e, as was "Microzero" when he posted this problem.
Thus, I think, "Doc Al" did his job brilliantly, didn't he?
Well, I also wanted to draw attention to few results.
Note that 0 <= e <= 1. Also, |k| >= 2, for the collision to take place.
Perfectly Elastic Collision (e = 1)
1. The rod can recoil back with same speed, v, only if D coincides with C and e = 1. v
f = -v, w = 0.
2. When D coincides with one of the ends (i.e., the rod grazes against the nail), |k| = 2, e = 1, gives v
f = v/2, w = 7*v/(4*l).
3. When CD = sqrt(3)*l/6, v
f = 0, w = 2*sqrt(3)*v/l. Thus, the rod comes to (translationary) rest and starts pure rotation.
Perfectly Inelastic Collision (e = 0)
1. The rod comes to complete rest if D coincides with C. v
f = 0, w = 0.
2. When D coincides with one of the ends (i.e., the rod grazes against the nail), |k| = 2, e = 0, gives v
f = 3*v/4, w = 3*v/(2*l). Note that, this situation is also as if the rod is being rotated about the end with angular speed, w = 3*v/(2*l)
I hope, I haven't bored you people much!
