Calculating Maclaurin Series for $\frac{1}{1+cos^2(x)}$

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SUMMARY

The discussion focuses on calculating the Maclaurin series for the function \(\frac{1}{1+\cos^2(x)}\) using the geometric series expansion. The initial approach involved substituting \(u = \cos(x)\) and expressing the series as \(\frac{1}{1+u^2} = 1 - u^2 + u^4 - \ldots\). The correct method involves substituting the series expansion for \(\cos(x)\) and simplifying to obtain the series for \(\frac{1}{1+\cos^2(x)}\), ultimately leading to the result \(\frac{1}{2} + \frac{1}{4}x^2 + \ldots\).

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of Maclaurin series
  • Familiarity with trigonometric identities, specifically \(\cos(x)\)
  • Knowledge of geometric series expansion
  • Basic calculus concepts, including series convergence
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the derivation of the Maclaurin series for \(\cos(x)\)
  • Learn about geometric series and their applications in calculus
  • Explore higher-order derivatives and their role in series expansion
  • Investigate convergence criteria for power series
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Students in calculus, particularly those studying series expansions, mathematicians interested in trigonometric series, and educators teaching series convergence and approximation techniques.

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Homework Statement



How can I calculate it for \frac{1}{1+cos^2(x)} by using the fact that \frac{1}{1+x^2} = 1 - x^2 + x^4 - ...?


Homework Equations



Given in the problem.

The Attempt at a Solution



I tried letting u = cos(x), then

\frac{1}{1+cos^2(x)} = \frac{1}{1+u^2} = 1 - u^2 + u^4 - ... = 1 - cos^2(x) + cos^4(x) - ...

But I don't think this is right because the first term should be 0.5, not 1... and I don't see how a -0.5 might pop out of this series of cos terms...and even if it somehow does, I think this question is not meant to be that difficult...

The answer I am trying to get is \frac{1}{2} + \frac{1}{4}x^2 + ...

Any ideas?

Thanks
 
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Use cos(x)=1-x^2/2!+x^4/4!-... to express the first few terms of the series for 1+cos(x)^2. Then, sure, use your geometric series. Feel free to drop terms that you know won't be important.
 
I don't follow, could you spell it out a bit more?

So cos^2(x) = 1-x^2+\frac{1}{3}x^4-...

Now what?

Thanks
 
Alright. So now you've got 1/(1+1-x^2+x^4/3+...). That's 1/(2-x^2/+x^4/3...). Write it as (1/2)*1/(1-(x^2/2-x^4/6...)). Now use 1/(1-a)=1+a+a^2+... with a=x^2/2-x^4/6+... If you only want a quadratic approximation then you didn't need to keep the x^4 stuff, right?
 

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