Calculating Terminal Velocity in a Fluid

jldavid
Messages
3
Reaction score
0

Homework Statement


A 1.5-mm-diameter steel ball bearing (7830 kg/m^3) is dropped into a tank of SAE 30 oil. What is its terminal velocity?

The density of oil is 917kg/m^3, and the viscosity of oil is 0.26kg/(m*s).

Help is much appreciated!


Homework Equations



Force of drag = 1/2 * (density of fluid) * (area of sphere) * v^2 * (coefficient of drag)
Force of drag = 3 * pi * (coefficient of fluid) * (diameter of obj) * v

Coefficient of drag = 24 / (Reynolds number)

Reynolds number = (density of fluid * velocity of fluid * chracteristic length)/(viscosity of fluid)

The Attempt at a Solution



When I combine all the equations, the v's cancel out. Is there a different equation I should be using?
 
Physics news on Phys.org
jldavid said:
When I combine all the equations, the v's cancel out. Is there a different equation I should be using?

Could you clarify this comment? Why do you "combine all the equations"?

The terminal velocity is attained when the net force on the ball in the fluid is zero. What are the forces on the ball bearing? Incidentally, you have two different drag force laws there: what situations do they correspond to and which is applicable to this problem?
 
Thread 'Need help understanding this figure on energy levels'
This figure is from "Introduction to Quantum Mechanics" by Griffiths (3rd edition). It is available to download. It is from page 142. I am hoping the usual people on this site will give me a hand understanding what is going on in the figure. After the equation (4.50) it says "It is customary to introduce the principal quantum number, ##n##, which simply orders the allowed energies, starting with 1 for the ground state. (see the figure)" I still don't understand the figure :( Here is...
Thread 'Understanding how to "tack on" the time wiggle factor'
The last problem I posted on QM made it into advanced homework help, that is why I am putting it here. I am sorry for any hassle imposed on the moderators by myself. Part (a) is quite easy. We get $$\sigma_1 = 2\lambda, \mathbf{v}_1 = \begin{pmatrix} 0 \\ 0 \\ 1 \end{pmatrix} \sigma_2 = \lambda, \mathbf{v}_2 = \begin{pmatrix} 1/\sqrt{2} \\ 1/\sqrt{2} \\ 0 \end{pmatrix} \sigma_3 = -\lambda, \mathbf{v}_3 = \begin{pmatrix} 1/\sqrt{2} \\ -1/\sqrt{2} \\ 0 \end{pmatrix} $$ There are two ways...
Back
Top