Calculating the eigenvalue of orbital angular momentum

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around calculating the eigenvalue of the orbital angular momentum for the quantum state characterized by quantum numbers l=1 and m=-1. Participants explore the application of the angular momentum operator and the resulting expressions when applied to the spherical harmonics wave function.

Discussion Character

  • Technical explanation
  • Mathematical reasoning
  • Debate/contested

Main Points Raised

  • One participant presents the angular momentum operator and its application to the wave function, leading to a calculation that results in an expression involving trigonometric functions.
  • Another participant expresses confusion over the calculation, noting that the result appears to be zero when it should yield a specific eigenvalue of 2ħ².
  • A later reply acknowledges a misunderstanding regarding the trigonometric identities involved, specifically confusing sin²(θ) with cos²(θ).
  • Participants engage in clarifying the mathematical steps and correcting each other's interpretations of the expressions derived from the operator application.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants do not reach a consensus on the correct interpretation of the results, as there is confusion regarding the mathematical steps and identities used in the calculations.

Contextual Notes

The discussion highlights potential misunderstandings in the manipulation of trigonometric identities and the application of the angular momentum operator, which may affect the interpretation of results.

TheBlueDot
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Hello,

I'm trying to calculate the measurement of the orbital angular momentum of the state l=1 and m = -1. The operator for the angular momentum squared is
## L^2 = -\hbar (\frac{1}{sin\theta}(\frac{\partial}{\partial \theta}(sin\theta\frac{\partial}{\partial \theta})) +\frac{1}{sin\theta^2}\frac{\partial^2}{\partial\phi^2}) ##,

which expands to
## L^2 = -\hbar (\frac{1}{sin\theta}(\frac{\partial sin\theta}{\partial \theta}\frac{\partial}{\partial \theta}+sin\theta \frac{\partial^2}{\partial \theta^2}) +\frac{1}{sin\theta^2}\frac{\partial^2}{\partial\phi^2}) ##

When operate this on the wave function ##Y_{1,-1} = csin\theta e^{-i\phi}##, I got

##Y_{1,-1}*(\frac{cos^2\theta}{sin\theta} -\frac{sin^2\theta}{sin\theta}-\frac{1}{sin\theta})##,

which is zero. The answer should be ##2\hbar^2##.

If the cosine term is zero, then I'll get the right result.

Please help!

Thanks
 
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TheBlueDot said:
Hello,

I'm trying to calculate the measurement of the orbital angular momentum of the state l=1 and m = -1. The operator for the angular momentum squared is
## L^2 = -\hbar (\frac{1}{sin\theta}(\frac{\partial}{\partial \theta}(sin\theta\frac{\partial}{\partial \theta})) +\frac{1}{sin\theta^2}\frac{\partial^2}{\partial\phi^2}) ##,

which expands to
## L^2 = -\hbar (\frac{1}{sin\theta}(\frac{\partial sin\theta}{\partial \theta}\frac{\partial}{\partial \theta}+sin\theta \frac{\partial^2}{\partial \theta^2}) +\frac{1}{sin\theta^2}\frac{\partial^2}{\partial\phi^2}) ##

When operate this on the wave function ##Y_{1,-1} = csin\theta e^{-i\phi}##, I got

##Y_{1,-1}*(\frac{cos^2\theta}{sin\theta} -\frac{sin^2\theta}{sin\theta}-\frac{1}{sin\theta})##,

which is zero. The answer should be ##2\hbar^2##.

If the cosine term is zero, then I'll get the right result.

Please help!

Thanks

##\frac{cos^2(\theta)}{sin(\theta)} - \frac{sin^2(\theta)}{sin(\theta)} - \frac{1}{sin(\theta)} = \frac{1-sin^2(\theta) - sin^2(\theta) - 1}{sin(\theta)} = \frac{-2 sin^2(\theta)}{sin(\theta)} = -2 sin(\theta)##
 
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stevendaryl said:
##\frac{cos^2(\theta)}{sin(\theta)} - \frac{sin^2(\theta)}{sin(\theta)} - \frac{1}{sin(\theta)} = \frac{1-sin^2(\theta) - sin^2(\theta) - 1}{sin(\theta)} = \frac{-2 sin^2(\theta)}{sin(\theta)} = -2 sin(\theta)##
@stevendaryl,
Thanks for your response. I feel silly now. I looked at the ##sin^2(\theta) -1 ## and thought it was ##cos^2(\theta)##.
 
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It doesn't say ##\ \ \sin^2(\theta) -1\ ##, but ##\ \ - \sin^2(\theta) -1\ \ ## :rolleyes:
 

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