What is the solution to r^(n+1)*(1-r) in calculus?

  • Thread starter Roscoe1989
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In summary, the conversation revolves around solving a proof with the equation r^(n+1)*(1-r)=1+r+...+r^n=1-r^(n+1)/1-r, with some confusion about the base case and the use of induction. The base case is when n = 0 and the inductive step involves showing that the equation holds for n+1, which is 1+r+...+r^(n+1)=1-r^(n+1+1)/(1-r). Ultimately, the conversation ends with a better understanding of the concept of induction and how it applies to the given equation.
  • #1
Roscoe1989
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1. can someone tell me what r^(n+1)*(1-r)=? I need it to solve a proof, but my math is so rusty! thanks!



2. r^(n+1)*(1-r)
 
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  • #2
What is the question...? Like the real question.
 
  • #3
prove by induction on n that
1+r+r^2...+r^=1-r^n+1/1-r
if r doesn't equal 1
 
  • #4
Just to be clear, you have

[tex]r^n + \frac{1}{1 -r}[/tex] on your right hand side?
 
  • #5
oopps, sorry. it should be

1+r+...+r^n=1-r^(n+1) / 1-r
 
  • #6
What is the base case? Let's start with that
 
  • #7
Also, shouldn't |r|<1?
 
  • #8
the what case?
 
  • #9
Base Case. You know that step you do in Induction
 
  • #10
i don't know?
 
  • #11
What can n be and cannot be?
 
  • #12
edit; mistake
 
  • #13
is it n can't be 0? but can be anything else?
 
  • #14
Roscoe1989 said:
oopps, sorry. it should be

1+r+...+r^n=1-r^(n+1) / 1-r

If you don't know induction, just multiply out (1+r+...+r^n)*(1-r). Many terms cancel.
 
  • #15
my textbook is saying 1-r^n+1
 
  • #16
Roscoe1989 said:
my textbook is saying 1-r^n+1

Oh sorry I didn't see the 1 in front earlier
 
Last edited:
  • #17
Roscoe1989 said:
my textbook is saying 1-r^n+1

Your textbook is right.
 
  • #18
Roscoe1989 said:
is it n can't be 0? but can be anything else?

try pluggin in 0
 
  • #19
n has to be greater than 0
 
  • #20
Roscoe1989 said:
n has to be greater than 0

Why?
 
  • #21
[tex]1 + r + r^2 + ... + r^n = \frac{1 - r^{n+1}}{1-r}[/tex]

Is what you have. What happens if n = 0?
 
  • #22
then the right hand side will equal 1. right?
 
  • #23
Roscoe1989 said:
then the right hand side will equal 1. right?

And what about the left hand side? What happens there?
 
  • #24
flyingpig said:
Why?

Why not? I would interpret 1+r+...+r^n for n=0 to be 1. (1-r^(0+1))/(1-r)=(1-r)/(1-r)=1. I'm not sure you are leading this in a helpful direction, flyingpig.
 
  • #25
honestly, i don't know
 
  • #26
Dick said:
Why not? I would interpret 1+r+...+r^n for n=0 to be 1. (1-r^(0+1))/(1-r)=(1-r)/(1-r)=1. I'm not sure you are leading this in a helpful direction, flyingpig.

Nononon, Ros asked if it can be 0 before
 
  • #27
does it mean that it's "proven"?
 
  • #28
Roscoe1989 said:
honestly, i don't know

[tex]1 + r + r^2 + ... + r^n = \frac{1 - r^{n+1}}{1-r}[/tex]

You were originally given this. You got it right when you said the rhs is 1 when n = 0
 
  • #29
Roscoe1989 said:
does it mean that it's "proven"?

By Induction? No

If only though, if only...
 
  • #30
but what does it mean on the LHS?
 
  • #31
It's probably that I tell you what Induction is (in brief form) first.

(1) Base Case. Usually we take n = 1 or 0. We show that it (S(n)) is true first

(2) Inductive Step. Assume that (1) is true and then you will write your Inductive hypothesis and show that it is true for S(n+1).
 
  • #32
flyingpig said:
By Induction? No

If only though, if only...

You don't really need induction for an informal proof. See my long buried comment in post 14.
 
  • #33
Roscoe1989 said:
but what does it mean on the LHS?

It's a sum and on the right hand side, it is a formula of the sum. The powers on the LHS keep going up and you just set the right hand side with n = 0.

Where n is the power.
 
  • #34
Dick said:
You don't really need induction for an informal proof. See my long buried comment in post 14.

Yeah I probably wouldn't do that [induction] either. But Ros asked for

Roscoe1989 said:
prove by induction on n that
1+r+r^2...+r^=1-r^n+1/1-r
if r doesn't equal 1

in post 3
 
  • #35
Dick and flyingpig, you are missing, I think, that roscoe1989 doesn't know what happens in the LHS when n=0.
When n=0, you don't get 1+r²+r³+...+r⁰.
1+r²+r³+...+r^n is just a notation. When n=0 you simply get r⁰ and this is worth 1. So when n=0, both the LHS and RHS is worth 1, so the equality holds, meaning that it does makes sense to consider n=0 (it's a possible/allowed value for n).
 

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