member 428835
hey pf!
so if i have a vector field \vec{V} and i know \nabla \cdot \vec{V}=0 would i be able to express \vec{V} in the following manner: \vec{V}= \nabla \times \vec{f} for some \vec{f}since we know this automatically satisfies the divergent free requirement?
if not, what must be assumed in order to claim that such an \vec{f} exists?
thanks for your time!
josh
so if i have a vector field \vec{V} and i know \nabla \cdot \vec{V}=0 would i be able to express \vec{V} in the following manner: \vec{V}= \nabla \times \vec{f} for some \vec{f}since we know this automatically satisfies the divergent free requirement?
if not, what must be assumed in order to claim that such an \vec{f} exists?
thanks for your time!
josh