I am curious as to whether the force of solid sphere can be considered to be originating entirely at its center when the force is(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({}); notof [itex]\frac{1}{r^2}[/itex] nature.

It is said that the field inside a uniform spherical shell is zero for any [itex]\frac{1}{r^2}[/itex] type force and not for any others. It would seem likely that the other such conclusions would not hold for any force that was not proportional to the inverse square of the distance.

If so, are there any similar conclusions or symmetries that are independent of the type of decay of the force?

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# Can a solid sphere only be considered a point for inverse-square forces?

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