Can a Subsequence of Measurable Functions Converge in L1?

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on the convergence of a subsequence of measurable functions in L1 space. The main question posed is whether a subsequence \( f_{n_k} \) of a sequence \( f_n \), which converges almost everywhere (a.e.) to a function \( f \), can also converge in L1. The consensus leans towards the impossibility of this scenario, supported by the hint to consider a counterexample where \( f_n \rightarrow 0 \) pointwise while maintaining \( \|f_n\| = 1 \) for all \( n \).

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  • Knowledge of convergence concepts, specifically almost everywhere (a.e.) convergence
  • Familiarity with L1 space and norms
  • Experience with constructing counterexamples in analysis
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Mathematics students, particularly those studying real analysis and functional analysis, as well as researchers exploring convergence properties of measurable functions.

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Homework Statement



Let fn be a sequence of measurable functions converges to f a.e. Is it possible to get a subsequence fnk of fn s.t. fn converges in L1 ?

2. The attempt at a solution
I have proved the converse statement is true and i guess the above statement is impossible but I fail to prove it.
 
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Hint: Look for a counterexample where ##f_n \rightarrow 0## pointwise but ##\|f_n\| = 1## for all ##n##.
 
Thanks for your suggestion
 

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