Can Contour Integrals Simplify Real Antiderivative Calculations?

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SUMMARY

This discussion explores the use of contour integrals to simplify the calculation of real antiderivatives, specifically for the functions e^x sin{x} and e^x cos{x}. The author demonstrates that by integrating e^z along the line in the (1,i) direction, one can derive the antiderivatives as follows: ∫ e^x cos{x} = (1/2)e^x( cos{x} + sin{x}) and ∫ e^x sin{x} = (1/2)e^x( sin{x} - cos{x}). The legitimacy of using contour integrals for this purpose is questioned, with references to the Riemann/Lebesgue integral definitions for complex functions.

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  • Understanding of contour integrals in complex analysis
  • Familiarity with integration by parts
  • Knowledge of real and imaginary parts of complex functions
  • Basic principles of the Riemann/Lebesgue integral
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ice109
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so suppose i wanted to calculate the antiderivatives of e^x\sin{x} and just for the hell of it also e^x\cos{x}. well i could perform integration by parts twice recognize that the original integral when it reappears, subtract from one side to the other blah blah blah.

or i could pervert a contour integral: i could integrate e^z along the line in the (1,i) direction:

e^{(1+i)x}=e^{x+ix}=e^x\cos{x}+ie^x\sin{x}

and leave off the limits

\int e^{(1+i)x}dx=\frac{1}{1+i}e^{(1+i)x}=\frac{1}{2}\left(e^x(\cos{x}+\sin{x})+ie^x(\sin{x}-\cos{x})\right)

and compare the real and imaginary parts of the integrand and the "antiderivative" and conclude:

\int e^x \cos{x} = \frac{1}{2}e^x(\cos{x}+\sin{x})
\int e^x \sin{x} = \frac{1}{2}e^x(\sin{x}-\cos{x})

which are of course the correct answers.

what i don't know is what an indefinite integral in the complex plane even is. I've only so far learned that i can use this "trick" to perform contour integrals <=> with end points, and then make conclusions about definite integrals of the real and imaginary parts of the integrand.

so how legit is this?
 
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That is convoluted.
let s be the antiderivative opperator
s*exp(x)cos(x)=Re[s*exp(x(1+i))]
s*exp(x)cos(x)=Im[s*exp(x(1+i))]
s*exp(x(1+i))=exp(x(1+i))/(1+i)
 
lurflurf said:
That is convoluted.
let s be the antiderivative opperator
s*exp(x)cos(x)=Re[s*exp(x(1+i))]
s*exp(x)cos(x)=Im[s*exp(x(1+i))]
s*exp(x(1+i))=exp(x(1+i))/(1+i)

and how do i know s commutes with Re and Im?
 
Surly "perverted" is not the right word here!
 
can one of you more knowledgeable people just tell me if this a legitimate technique?
 
It is legitimate for entire functions. There may be subtleties if a function has poles.
 
A function f:R->C can be decomposed into its real and imaginary parts, say f=u+iv, where u=Re(f) and v=Im(f). The definition of the Riemann/Lebesgue integral of such a function is

\int f = \int u + i \int v.

The integrals \int u and \int v are just the usual real integrals.

Does this clear anything up for you?
 

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