ice109
- 1,707
- 6
so suppose i wanted to calculate the antiderivatives of e^x\sin{x} and just for the hell of it also e^x\cos{x}. well i could perform integration by parts twice recognize that the original integral when it reappears, subtract from one side to the other blah blah blah.
or i could pervert a contour integral: i could integrate e^z along the line in the (1,i) direction:
e^{(1+i)x}=e^{x+ix}=e^x\cos{x}+ie^x\sin{x}
and leave off the limits
\int e^{(1+i)x}dx=\frac{1}{1+i}e^{(1+i)x}=\frac{1}{2}\left(e^x(\cos{x}+\sin{x})+ie^x(\sin{x}-\cos{x})\right)
and compare the real and imaginary parts of the integrand and the "antiderivative" and conclude:
\int e^x \cos{x} = \frac{1}{2}e^x(\cos{x}+\sin{x})
\int e^x \sin{x} = \frac{1}{2}e^x(\sin{x}-\cos{x})
which are of course the correct answers.
what i don't know is what an indefinite integral in the complex plane even is. I've only so far learned that i can use this "trick" to perform contour integrals <=> with end points, and then make conclusions about definite integrals of the real and imaginary parts of the integrand.
so how legit is this?
or i could pervert a contour integral: i could integrate e^z along the line in the (1,i) direction:
e^{(1+i)x}=e^{x+ix}=e^x\cos{x}+ie^x\sin{x}
and leave off the limits
\int e^{(1+i)x}dx=\frac{1}{1+i}e^{(1+i)x}=\frac{1}{2}\left(e^x(\cos{x}+\sin{x})+ie^x(\sin{x}-\cos{x})\right)
and compare the real and imaginary parts of the integrand and the "antiderivative" and conclude:
\int e^x \cos{x} = \frac{1}{2}e^x(\cos{x}+\sin{x})
\int e^x \sin{x} = \frac{1}{2}e^x(\sin{x}-\cos{x})
which are of course the correct answers.
what i don't know is what an indefinite integral in the complex plane even is. I've only so far learned that i can use this "trick" to perform contour integrals <=> with end points, and then make conclusions about definite integrals of the real and imaginary parts of the integrand.
so how legit is this?