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in deriving quantization of flux in superconductor ring, the momentum of cooper pair p:
p=\hbar\nabla\theta=e^*(\Lambda J_s + A)
then integrate around the ring,
\hbar\oint\nabla\theta dl=e^*\oint(\Lambda J_s + A)dl
using stoke's theorem and integrate sufficiently deep in the ring where current density is very small, the RHS becomes
RHS=e^*\Phi_s
and the left hand side,becomes hn where n is integer.
So the quantized flux is
\Phi_s=nh/e^*
e star is the effective cooper pair charge which is -2e.
i got confused here,why the left hand side integral becomes hn?
The argument used by the book (Van Duzer, superconductivity page 116) is that because theta is unique or differ by a multiple of 2 Pi at each point, so the integral
\oint\nabla\theta dl=2\pi n
why?? where does n come from? theta is a scalar function of r.
please help.
thanks.
p=\hbar\nabla\theta=e^*(\Lambda J_s + A)
then integrate around the ring,
\hbar\oint\nabla\theta dl=e^*\oint(\Lambda J_s + A)dl
using stoke's theorem and integrate sufficiently deep in the ring where current density is very small, the RHS becomes
RHS=e^*\Phi_s
and the left hand side,becomes hn where n is integer.
So the quantized flux is
\Phi_s=nh/e^*
e star is the effective cooper pair charge which is -2e.
i got confused here,why the left hand side integral becomes hn?
The argument used by the book (Van Duzer, superconductivity page 116) is that because theta is unique or differ by a multiple of 2 Pi at each point, so the integral
\oint\nabla\theta dl=2\pi n
why?? where does n come from? theta is a scalar function of r.
please help.
thanks.
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