Can smooth and analytic be used interchangeably?

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Discussion Overview

The discussion centers on whether the terms "smooth" and "analytic" can be used interchangeably in the context of mathematical functions. It explores definitions and properties associated with these terms, including their implications in real and complex analysis.

Discussion Character

  • Debate/contested
  • Technical explanation
  • Conceptual clarification

Main Points Raised

  • Some participants suggest that "smooth" and "analytic" could be interchangeable, with one participant expressing a personal guess in favor of this view.
  • Others argue that while a real analytic function is smooth, the reverse is not necessarily true, citing the existence of infinitely differentiable functions that are not analytic.
  • One participant provides a counterexample of a function that is infinitely differentiable but not equal to its power series, thus not analytic at that point.
  • Another participant notes the ambiguity of the term "smooth," mentioning different interpretations, such as "infinitely smooth" and "sufficiently smooth," while agreeing that infinitely differentiable functions are not necessarily analytic.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants generally disagree on whether "smooth" and "analytic" can be used interchangeably, with multiple competing views presented regarding their definitions and implications.

Contextual Notes

The discussion highlights limitations in the definitions of "smooth" and "analytic," including the ambiguity of the term "smooth" and the specific conditions under which a function is considered analytic.

dextercioby
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Can "smooth" and "analytic" be used interchangeably?

My guess is 'yes'. :rolleyes:

Daniel.
 
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No. Smooth merely means infinitely differentiable, whereas analytic means that it has to be locally equal to its power series!

(But if we're talking complex differentiation, then being once differentiable is sufficient for meing analytic. Complex numbers are magical!)

The classic counterexample is the function:

[tex] f(x) :=<br /> \begin{cases}<br /> e^{-1/x^2} & x \neq 0 \\<br /> 0 & x = 0<br /> \end{cases}[/tex]

which is infinitely differentiable at x=0: in fact, we have that [itex]f^{(n)}(0) = 0[/itex] for all of its derivatives!

So, this function is clearly not equal to a power series on any neighborhood of zero, and thus is not analytic there.
 
"smooth" tends to be ambiguous. I have seen smooth used to mean only differentiable and "infinitely smooth" to mean infinitely differentiable. I have even seen reference to "sufficiently smooth" to mean "as differentiable as you need".

Hurkyl is right, though, even an infinitely differentiable function is not necessarily analytic.
 

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