Can this be considered a proof

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the divisibility of binomial coefficients by prime numbers, specifically examining the statement that if \( p \) is a prime and \( k \) is an integer such that \( 0 < k < p \), then \( p \) divides \( \binom{p}{k} \). Additionally, there is an exploration of whether \( \binom{2n}{n} \) is even for natural numbers \( n \).

Discussion Character

  • Mixed

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the implications of the prime nature of \( p \) and question the validity of certain steps in the original poster's reasoning. There are attempts to clarify the integer nature of specific expressions and the significance of the prime condition in the proof.

Discussion Status

Several participants have raised questions about the assumptions made in the original proof attempts, particularly regarding the integer status of certain expressions and the implications of \( p \) being prime. There is an ongoing examination of the reasoning presented, with some participants suggesting alternative perspectives and clarifications.

Contextual Notes

Participants note the importance of adhering to the conditions set forth in the hypotheses, particularly the relationship between \( p \) and \( k \). There is also mention of specific examples that illustrate the necessity of the prime condition in the context of binomial coefficients.

Government$
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Homework Statement


If p is a prime and k is an integer for which 0<k<p, then p divides \displaystyle \ \binom{p}{k}.
Whne p divides \displaystyle \ \binom{p}{k} it means that \displaystyle \ \binom{p}{k}=p*b.
wheren b is some number.

The Attempt at a Solution



So p is equal to some number k.

p=k
I take factorial of both sides and get
p!=k!
and multiply both sides by
\frac{1}{k!(p-k)!}
to get
\frac{p!}{k!(p-k)!}=\frac{k!}{k!(p-k)!}
Since p=k
\displaystyle \ \binom{p}{k}=\frac{p(p-1)(p-2)...(p-k+1)(p-k)!}{k!(p-k)!}
then
\displaystyle \ \binom{p}{k}=p*\frac{(p-1)(p-2)...(p-k+1)}{k!}
where b=\frac{(p-1)(p-2)...(p-k+1)}{k!} therefore p divides \displaystyle \ \binom{p}{k}.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Homework Statement



If n \in N then \displaystyle \ \binom{2n}{n} is even i.e.
\displaystyle \ \binom{2n}{n}=2*b where b is some number

The Attempt at a Solution



\displaystyle \ \binom{2n}{n}=\frac{2n!}{n!(2n-n)!} = \frac{2n(2n-1)..3*2*1}{n!(2n-n)!}=2*\frac{n(2n-1)..3*2*1}{n!(2n-n)!} where b=\frac{n(2n-1)..3*2*1}{n!(2n-n)!}
 
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Government$ said:

Homework Statement


If p is a prime and k is an integer for which 0<k<p, then p divides \displaystyle \ \binom{p}{k}.
Whne p divides \displaystyle \ \binom{p}{k} it means that \displaystyle \ \binom{p}{k}=p*b.
wheren b is some number.

The Attempt at a Solution



So p is equal to some number k.

p=k
I take factorial of both sides and get
p!=k!
and multiply both sides by
\frac{1}{k!(p-k)!}
to get
\frac{p!}{k!(p-k)!}=\frac{k!}{k!(p-k)!}
Since p=k
\displaystyle \ \binom{p}{k}=\frac{p(p-1)(p-2)...(p-k+1)(p-k)!}{k!(p-k)!}
then
\displaystyle \ \binom{p}{k}=p*\frac{(p-1)(p-2)...(p-k+1)}{k!}
where b=\frac{(p-1)(p-2)...(p-k+1)}{k!} therefore p divides \displaystyle \ \binom{p}{k}.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Homework Statement



If n \in N then \displaystyle \ \binom{2n}{n} is even i.e.
\displaystyle \ \binom{2n}{n}=2*b where b is some number

The Attempt at a Solution



\displaystyle \ \binom{2n}{n}=\frac{2n!}{n!(2n-n)!} = \frac{2n(2n-1)..3*2*1}{n!(2n-n)!}=2*\frac{n(2n-1)..3*2*1}{n!(2n-n)!} where b=\frac{n(2n-1)..3*2*1}{n!(2n-n)!}

In 1): how do you know that
b=\frac{(p-1)(p-2)...(p-k+1)}{k!}
is an integer? Where have you used the hypothesis that p is prime?
 
Ray Vickson said:
In 1): how do you know that
b=\frac{(p-1)(p-2)...(p-k+1)}{k!}
is an integer? Where have you used the hypothesis that p is prime?

Good points, there goes my proof in the water.:cry:
 
At the start of 1 you write p=k even though p > k...

Your proof isn't totally wrecked, you know that
\frac{ p(p-1)(p-2)...(p-k+1)}{k!}
is an integer, so all you want to do is explain why, when you divide the numerator by k!, the p in the numerator is not canceled out.
 
Government$ said:
Good points, there goes my proof in the water.:cry:

Just to clarify: it is important that p be prime. For example (writing C(a,b) for "a choose b") we have that C(5,2) = 10 is divisible by 5 and C(7,3) = 35 is divisible by 7, but neither C(6,2) = 15 nor C(6,3) = 20 are divisible by 6.
 
The hypotheses say 0< k< p yet in your "proof" you say "p is equal to some number k". Surely p is equal to "some number" (why not just use "p"?) but calling it "k" and then confusing it with the "k" in the hypothesis is just "sleight of hand". I saw you pocket that card!
 
Hi,

It's a consequence of Gauss theorem.
Write ## p! = k!\ (p-k)!\ C_p^k##. You get that ##p|k!\ (p-k)!\ C_p^k##.
Show that ##\text{gcd}(p, k!\ (p-k)!) = 1 ##, and conclude ##p|C_p^k##
 

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