yungman
- 5,741
- 294
As the tittle, can varying magnetic field ( well EM) cause eddy current in non magnetic conductors like aluminum? If so, why?
Thanks
Alan
Thanks
Alan
yungman said:As the tittle, can varying magnetic field ( well EM) cause eddy current in non magnetic conductors like aluminum? If so, why?
Thanks
Alan
Bob S said:Eddy currents arise from \nabla \mathrm{x} \overrightarrow{E}= -\mu\mu_o \frac{\partial \overrightarrow{H} }{\partial t}
A varying magnetic field can induce currents in any electrical conductor, both magnetic and non-magnetic.
For flat surfaces, it is straight exponentialCreator said:Is there an equation that gives me the depth of the current induced ?
Bob S said:For flat surfaces, it is straight exponential
i\left(z \right)=i\left(0 \right)e^{-\left(\frac{\mu\omega}{2\rho} \right)^{1/2}z}
For curved surfaces, it is given by the ratio of two modified Bessel functions of order 0 with complex arguments. See chapter 10 in Smythe
Static and Dynamic Electricity (3rd Edition)
Thanks Bob, but I can't read the tiny print ...looks like inverse exp. sqrt power of: {(magnetic permiability of material x frequency) / 2 x current density} x z ??Bob S said:For flat surfaces, it is straight exponential
i\left(z \right)=i\left(0 \right)e^{-\left(\frac{\mu\omega}{2\rho} \right)^{1/2}z}
The skin depth is \delta=\left(\frac{2\rho}{\omega\mu} \right)^{\frac{1}{2}} where ρ is resistivity.yungman said:Is ρ supposed to be σ ?
Ln\left(\frac{i\left(z \right)}{i\left(0 \right)} \right)=-\left(\frac{\mu\omega}{2\rho} \right)^{\frac{1}{2}}zCreator said:Thanks Bob, but I can't read it ...looks like inverse exp. sqrt power of: {(magnetic perm
Thus ...
ln[I(z)/I(0)] = ln[e^-(...)] = -sqrt(uw/2p)(z)...ln = nat log; I = current.
Thus...
z = ln[I(z)/I(0)] / -sqrt(uw/2p)...where u = mu; w = omega, and p = rho.
Correct?
Bob S said:The skin depth is \delta=\left(\frac{2\rho}{\omega\mu} \right)^{\frac{1}{2}} where ρ is resistivity.
See http://www.rfcafe.com/references/electrical/skin-depth.htmyungman said:So Eddy current is a totally different mechanism from free surface current according to the magnetic boundary condition?
Bob S said:
Bob S said:Ln\left(\frac{i\left(z \right)}{i\left(0 \right)} \right)=-\left(\frac{\mu\omega}{2\rho} \right)^{\frac{1}{2}}z
yungman said:I see, that makes the whole world of sense! I was going in circle as I use ρ as charge!
Thanks