Can You Simplify This Complicated Integral Result?

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SUMMARY

The integral result presented is $$\frac{1}{2}\log^2\left(\phi\right)-\frac{1}{4}\log^2\left( \frac{1+\phi }{4}\right)-\arctan^2\left(\sqrt{\phi}\right)$$, where $\phi$ represents the golden ratio, defined as $$\phi=\frac{1+\sqrt{5}}{2}$$. The discussion confirms that simplification of this expression is unlikely due to the complex properties of $\phi$ and the absence of its fractional representation in the integral's components. The numeric value of the integral has been verified to be equivalent to the original expression.

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I was solving an integral and I got an over complicated result :eek:

$$\frac{1}{2}\log^2\left(\phi\right)-\frac{1}{4}\log^2\left( \frac{1+\phi }{4}\right)-\arctan^2\left(\sqrt{\phi}\right)$$

where $\phi$ is the golden ratio .

The numeric value proved an equivalence to the value of the integral .

Can anybody simplify it a little bit , or should I leave it like this ?
 
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It doesn't look to me like you could simplify it. $\phi$ does not have nice properties, so far as I know, with the fractions you have there. It is true that
$$ \phi=\frac{1+\sqrt{5}}{2},$$
but you don't have that fraction showing up anywhere.
 

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