Challenging Integrals in Calculus 1-2: Expand Your Problem-Solving Skills!

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Pranav-Arora said:
This one is fairly straightforward, use the substitution ##x=\tan\theta##.

For this one, define:
$$I(a)=\int_0^1 \frac{x^a-1}{\ln(x)}dx$$
Differentiate both the side with respect to a to get:
$$\frac{dI}{da}=\int_0^1 x^a\,dx=\frac{1}{a+1}$$
$$\Rightarrow I(a)=\ln|a+1|+C$$
It can be easily seen that C=0. We need the value of I(a) when a=1, hence,
$$I(1)=\ln(2)$$

We use the series expansion of ##\ln(1-x)## i.e
$$\ln(1-x)=-\sum_{k=1}^{\infty} \frac{x^k}{k}$$
Hence, our integral is:
$$-\int_0^1 \frac{1}{x}\sum_{k=1}^{\infty} \frac{x^k}{k}\,dx$$
$$=-\sum_{k=1}^{\infty} \int_0^1 \frac{x^{k-1}}{k}\,dx$$
$$=-\sum_{k=1}^{\infty} \frac{1}{k^2}=-\zeta(2)$$

Are you sure about the tan substitution? I couldn't solve it that way, but I'm not very good
 
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dumbperson said:
Are you sure about the tan substitution? I couldn't solve it that way, but I'm not very good

Hi dumbperson! :)

Yes, I am sure about it. After the substitution, you should get:
$$I=\int_0^{\pi/4} \ln(1+\tan\theta)\,d\theta$$
Also,
$$I=\int_0^{\pi/4} \ln\left(1+\tan\left(\frac{\pi}{4}-\theta\right)\right)\,d\theta=\int_0^{\pi/4} \ln\left(1+\frac{1-\tan\theta}{1+\tan\theta}\right)\,d\theta=\int_0^{\pi/4} \ln(2)-\ln(1+\tan\theta) \,d\theta$$
$$\Rightarrow I=\frac{\pi \ln2}{4}-I \Rightarrow \boxed{I=\frac{\pi \ln2}{8}}$$

I hope that helps.
 
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Pranav-Arora said:
Hi dumbperson! :)

Yes, I am sure about it. After the substitution, you should get:
$$I=\int_0^{\pi/4} \ln(1+\tan\theta)\,d\theta$$
Also,
$$I=\int_0^{\pi/4} \ln\left(1+\tan\left(\frac{\pi}{4}-\theta\right)\right)\,d\theta=\int_0^{\pi/4} \ln\left(1+\frac{1-\tan\theta}{1+\tan\theta}\right)\,d\theta=\int_0^{\pi/4} \ln(2)-\ln(1+\tan\theta) \,d\theta$$
$$\Rightarrow I=\frac{\pi \ln2}{4}-I \Rightarrow \boxed{I=\frac{\pi \ln2}{8}}$$

I hope that helps.

Ah cool, thanks!
 
Not really a hard one but try this: [itex]\displaystyle\int 1-\sin x\cos x\tan x\,dx[/itex]
 
Some of my most memorable ones from calc I, should take a few coffees to solve:

$$\int_{0}^{∞} \frac{1}{x^2 + \sqrt{x}} dx$$

$$\int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{4}} \frac{1}{1 + sin^2(x)} dx$$
 
Zondrina said:
$$\int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{4}} \frac{1}{1 + sin^2(x)} dx$$

if we divide both the numerator and the denominator by [itex]\frac{1}{cos^{2}x}[/itex] the integral becomes

[itex]\displaystyle\int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{4}} \frac{sec^{2}x}{1+2tan^{2}x} dx[/itex]

We can make the substitution [itex]t = tan(x)[/itex]

I guess you can solve the first one by making the sub [itex]u = \sqrt{x}[/itex] and then using partial fractions decomposition
 
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This one was a 1968 Putnam competition problem, I believe:
[tex]{\int_{0}^{1}{\frac{x^4 (1-x)^4}{1+x^2} dx}}[/tex]
The answer is really interesting...
If you're really up for a challenge, try this continuation:
[tex]{\int_{0}^{1}{\frac{x^8 (1-x)^8 (25+816x^2)}{3164(1+x^2)} dx}}[/tex]
These are just tedious and definitely easier than many of the problems here.
-- Joseph
 
The 1st one is not tedious:

[tex]- \int_{0}^{1} \frac{(1-x^4 -1)(1-x)^4}{1+x^2} dx = - \int_{0}^{1} (1-x)^5 (1+x) dx + \int_{0}^{1} \frac{(1-x)^4}{1+x^2} dx[/tex]

For the 1st integral, just sub 1-x = p and it will be trivial.

For the 2nd integral, write the integrand as

[tex]\frac{(1-x)^2 (1-x)^2}{(1-x)^2 + 2x} = (1-x)^2 - \frac{2x(1-x)^2}{(1-x)^2+2x} = (1-x)^2 - 2x\frac{1-x^2}{1+x^2} + \frac{4(1+x^2)-4}{1+x^2}[/tex]

The integration of the 4 terms is elementary.
 
dextercioby said:
The 1st one is not tedious:

[tex]- \int_{0}^{1} \frac{(1-x^4 -1)(1-x)^4}{1+x^2} dx = - \int_{0}^{1} (1-x)^5 (1+x) dx + \int_{0}^{1} \frac{(1-x)^4}{1+x^2} dx[/tex]

Can you explain in more detail exactly what you did there please? I see that ##x^4 = -(-x^4 +1 - 1)## and then I don't see how you got to the next step.

I had a good time with this one:

[tex]\int_{\to 0}^{\to 1}\ln x \ln (1-x) \, \mathrm dx[/tex]

(+7 points if you prove that it exists before evaluating it)
 
GFauxPas said:
I had a good time with this one:

[tex]\int_{\to 0}^{\to 1}\ln x \ln (1-x) \, \mathrm dx[/tex]

(+7 points if you prove that it exists before evaluating it)

$$\int_0^1 \ln x\ln(1-x)\,dx=-\sum_{k=1}^{\infty} \frac{1}{k}\int_0^1 x^k\ln x\,dx=\sum_{k=1}^{\infty} \frac{1}{k(k+1)^2}$$
$$=\sum_{k=1}^{\infty} \frac{1+k-k}{k(k+1)^2}=\sum_{k=1}^{\infty} \frac{1}{k(k+1)}-\sum_{k=1}^{\infty} \frac{1}{(k+1)^2}$$
Both the sums are easy to evaluate, the first one evaluates to 1 by telescoping series and the second one is simply ##\zeta(2)-1##, hence, the final answer is ##2-\zeta(2)##.

einstein314 said:
This one was a 1968 Putnam competition problem, I believe:
[tex]{\int_{0}^{1}{\frac{x^4 (1-x)^4}{1+x^2} dx}}[/tex]
The answer is really interesting...
If you're really up for a challenge, try this continuation:
[tex]{\int_{0}^{1}{\frac{x^8 (1-x)^8 (25+816x^2)}{3164(1+x^2)} dx}}[/tex]
These are just tedious and definitely easier than many of the problems here.
-- Joseph

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Proof_that_22/7_exceeds_π
 
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Not terribly hard but something I've found interesting
[tex]\int_{0}^{1}\sin (\ln(x)) dx[/tex]
 
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guysensei1 said:
Not terribly hard but something I've found interesting
[tex]\int_{0}^{1}\sin (\ln(x)) dx[/tex]
This one is really easy. Sub [itex]x=e^y[/itex]. The rest is either that trick with the repeated integration by parts or transforming [itex]\sin y[/itex] to a complex exponential form.
 
I'm curious to see what technique you guys would use to solve ## \int_{-1}^{1} \frac{\cos(x)}{\exp(1/x) + 1}dx ##
 
ObsessiveMathsFreak said:
[tex]\int e^{-x^2} dx[/tex]

prasannapakkiam said:
how can this even be integrated?:rolleyes:

You don't. You use a power series for that one. Hahaha.
 
itsjustme said:
sin(2x)cos(2x)dx
[tex]\int{\sin{2x}\cos{2x}dx} = \frac{1}{2} \int{\sin{4x}} = -\frac{1}{8} \cos{4x}[/tex]
 
DyslexicHobo said:
I'm just out of Calc 1, so I'm not sure if I even have the knowledge to solve this... but here's where I am now. I can't tell if I complicated it even more, or if I'm closer to getting the solution.

[tex]\int (r-1)^{1/5}ln(r) - r^{-1} (r-1)^{1/5} dr[/tex]

I used u-substitution (well, r-substitution), where [tex]r = x^5 + 1[/tex]. After the substitution I used integration by parts, and now I'm unsure if that was even the right path. Please let me know!

And please tell us how to do [tex]\int_{0}^{\infty}sin(x^2)dx[/tex]
To integrate [tex]\int_{0}^{\infty}sin(x^2)dx[/tex] we use [tex]\int_{0}^{\infty}sin(x^n)dx[/tex] =[tex]\Gamma{(1 + \frac{1}{n})}\sin{\frac{\pi}{2n}}[/tex] = [tex]\frac{\sqrt{\pi}}{2\sqrt{2}}[/tex]
 
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Zondrina said:
Give this one a chug:

$$\int x \sqrt{ax^2 + bx + c}$$

I would rewrite it as ##\displaystyle \frac{1}{2a}[\int(2ax + b)\sqrt{ax^2 + bx + c}dx - b\int\sqrt{ax^2 + bx + c}dx]##

The first integral is of the form ##\displaystyle \int f'(x)g(f(x))dx## and can be solved easily by either inspection or applying the sub##\displaystyle ax^2 + bx + c = u##.

The second integral is evaluated by completing the square and applying a hyperbolic sine sub.
 
Disclaimer: A friend told me about this and I do not know the answer yet.
Disclaimer 2: This is not really an integration problem but very close. (If you think it should not be here, please tell me, I will remove it)

Try this one,
(dy/dx) + 3 = (dy/dx) + 2
Apparently, it does have a solution (or so I am told and yes, I am still working on the problem)
 
hEMU said:
Disclaimer: A friend told me about this and I do not know the answer yet.
Disclaimer 2: This is not really an integration problem but very close. (If you think it should not be here, please tell me, I will remove it)

Try this one,
(dy/dx) + 3 = (dy/dx) + 2
Apparently, it does have a solution (or so I am told and yes, I am still working on the problem)
Any vertical line (x=a) satisfies.
"∞ = ∞" :biggrin:
 
[itex]\displaystyle\int_0^\infty e^{-\sqrt[2015] x} dx = 2015![/itex]

True or false? Prove your answer. Came up with this one myself :D
 
This one isn't too hard, but it is really cool:
[itex]\int^{\infty}_{-\infty} \frac{1}{x^2 + 1} \, \mathrm{d}x[/itex]
 
cpman said:
This one isn't too hard, but it is really cool:
[itex]\int^{\infty}_{-\infty} \frac{1}{x^2 + 1} \, \mathrm{d}x[/itex]
Wouldn't it just be zero?
-You substitute x = tan u
-You get [arctan x] from (-inf) to (+inf) which is 0