meichenl
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This is a question about simple non-relativistic quantum mechanics in one dimension.
If the energy operator is \imath \frac{h}{2\pi}\frac{\partial}{\partial t}, then it would appear to commute with the position operator x. Then, if the energy and position operators commute, I ought to be able to find simultaneous eigenstates of them.
However, it is clear that in general the Hamiltonian does not commute with x, and in general these two operators do not have any simultaneous eigenstates.
What is wrong with my thinking? Does it make sense to think of \imath \frac{h}{2\pi} \frac{\partial}{\partial t} as the energy operator, and is that supposed to be the same as the Hamiltonian? Am I running into a problem because I am thinking on the one hand of a time-independent problem and on the other of a time-dependent one? Alternatively, is it incorrect to state that any two operators which commute must have simultaneous eigenstates?
Thank you,
Mark
If the energy operator is \imath \frac{h}{2\pi}\frac{\partial}{\partial t}, then it would appear to commute with the position operator x. Then, if the energy and position operators commute, I ought to be able to find simultaneous eigenstates of them.
However, it is clear that in general the Hamiltonian does not commute with x, and in general these two operators do not have any simultaneous eigenstates.
What is wrong with my thinking? Does it make sense to think of \imath \frac{h}{2\pi} \frac{\partial}{\partial t} as the energy operator, and is that supposed to be the same as the Hamiltonian? Am I running into a problem because I am thinking on the one hand of a time-independent problem and on the other of a time-dependent one? Alternatively, is it incorrect to state that any two operators which commute must have simultaneous eigenstates?
Thank you,
Mark