JK423
Gold Member
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My book on quantum physics says that if two Hermitian operators commute then it emerges that they have common eigenfunctions.
Is that true?
If A,B hermitian commuting operators and Ψ a random wavefunction then:
[A,B]Ψ=0 => ABΨ=BAΨ
If we assume that Ψ is B`s eigenfunction:
b*AΨ=BAΨ
From this equation, how does it emerge for A to have common eigenfunctions with B?
I agree that if Ψ was A`s eigenfunction then the equation would be satisfied, but in the more general case of a random Ψ it doesn't emerge that Ψ is also A`s eigenfunction!
Another argument to support this is the following.
If those operators commute, then their uncertainties satisfy the following inequality:
ΔΑ*ΔΒ >=0
Ψ is B`s eigenfunction so: ΔB=0.
Now the inequality is satisfied for ANY ΔΑ (including zero).
So is the statement << if two hermitian operators commute then it emerges that they have common eigenfunctions. >> true or false?
Is that true?
If A,B hermitian commuting operators and Ψ a random wavefunction then:
[A,B]Ψ=0 => ABΨ=BAΨ
If we assume that Ψ is B`s eigenfunction:
b*AΨ=BAΨ
From this equation, how does it emerge for A to have common eigenfunctions with B?
I agree that if Ψ was A`s eigenfunction then the equation would be satisfied, but in the more general case of a random Ψ it doesn't emerge that Ψ is also A`s eigenfunction!
Another argument to support this is the following.
If those operators commute, then their uncertainties satisfy the following inequality:
ΔΑ*ΔΒ >=0
Ψ is B`s eigenfunction so: ΔB=0.
Now the inequality is satisfied for ANY ΔΑ (including zero).
So is the statement << if two hermitian operators commute then it emerges that they have common eigenfunctions. >> true or false?