Comparing Generalised Momentum Calculations for Central Force Problems

AI Thread Summary
The discussion focuses on understanding generalized momentum in the context of the Lagrangian for central force problems. The Lagrangian is defined as L = (1/2)m(ṙ² + p²ṗ²) - U(r), leading to angular momentum Pφ = mr²ṗ. The participant expresses confusion about deriving angular momentum using both Lagrangian and Newtonian approaches, particularly regarding the relationship between velocity, radius, and angle. It is clarified that the Lagrangian formulation is general and not limited to circular motion, and that expressing angular momentum requires avoiding unnecessary angles for clarity. The conversation emphasizes the need to relate the two methods effectively to achieve consistent results.
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Homework Statement



I have an issue with understanding the idea of generalised momentum for the Lagrangian.

For a central force problem, the Lagrangian is given by,
$$L = \frac{1}{2}m(\dot{r} ^2 + p^2 \dot{\phi ^2}) - U(r)$$
with ##r## being radial distance.

The angular momentum is then,
$$P_{\phi} = \frac{\partial L}{\partial \dot{\phi}} = mr^2\dot{\phi}$$

Without the Lagrangian, I would have started with,
$$P_{\phi} = \vec{r} \times \vec{P}$$
$$|P_{\phi}| = rP\sin (\theta)$$
$$|P_{\phi}| = rmv \sin (\theta)$$
with ##\theta## being the angle between the two vectors, which I think can be reduced with the equation
$$v = r\dot{\phi}$$
and angular momentum is,
$$|P_{\phi}| = mr^2 \dot{\phi} \sin (\theta)$$
which varies significantly.

Could someone kindly
a) Explain the errors in my assumptions
b) Explain how I should have altered my "Newtonian" working in order to derive the same result as the Lagrangian method?

Thanks!

Homework Equations

The Attempt at a Solution

 
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v = rφ' is true only when the v and r vectors are perpendicular, as in circular motion. More generally, rφ' = v sinθ.
 
mjc123 said:
v = rφ' is true only when the v and r vectors are perpendicular, as in circular motion. More generally, rφ' = v sinθ.

Hi, thanks for the response.

But this means that the particle in the Lagrangian problem has to be moving in a circular motion, which needn't be the case, no?
 
No, the Lagrangian is general (as shown by the term in r'2, which is 0 for circular motion.)
 
mjc123 said:
No, the Lagrangian is general (as shown by the term in r'2, which is 0 for circular motion.)

Do you mind explaining why ##v\sin \theta = r \dot{\phi}##?

Thank you.
 
diagram.png

Hope this helps
 

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mjc123 said:
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Hope this helps

If you want to compare those two ways of calculating the momentum you need to express ##\vec{r} \times \vec{P}## completely in terms of ##r## and ##\phi## and their derivatives. Putting in the extra angle ##\theta## makes it hard to compare them.
 
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