Complex analysis / Using analyticity of f to prove f is constant

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Homework Statement


I'm supposed to show that, if f is analytic and |f| is constant on a domain D \subset \mathbb{C}, f is constant.


Homework Equations


The hint is to write f^* = |f|^2 / f. I might also need to use the fact that if f^* is analytic too, then f is constant.


The Attempt at a Solution


Well, I followed the hint, and I fail to see how it helps at all. Given the hypotheses of the problem, I guess we know f^* = A / f for some A > 0, but this doesn't strike me as particularly useful. Writing f = u(x,y) + i v(x,y) only seems to complicate things, but don't I eventually have to do this? I'm guessing I'm supposed to use the Cauchy-Riemann Equations together, in some way, with the fact (proved in my text) that if h(x,y) is a real-valued function that satisfies \nabla h = 0 on a domain, then h is constant on that domain. But taking partial derivatives and trying to use u_x = v_y and u_y = -v_x just makes things messy.
 
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You've got all the ingredients in front of you. If f=u+iv is analytic then f*=(u-iv)=A/f is also analytic. Write out the Cauchy-Riemann equations for both f and f*. What do they tell you about the partial derivatives of u and v?
 
Right now, I've got a system of equations for f = u+iv: (1) uu_x = vv_x and (2) uu_y = vv_y. These came from u^2 + v^2 = Constant. But I've got to show that u_x = u_y = 0 from this and u_x = v_y, u_y = -v_x. Any hints? I still can't quite get there...
 
I already gave you a hint. f=u+iv and f*=u-iv are analytic. Use Cauchy-Riemann on both of them.
 
Dick said:
I already gave you a hint. f=u+iv and f*=u-iv are analytic. Use Cauchy-Riemann on both of them.
You did. Sorry. I'll do that :)
 
Dick said:
I already gave you a hint. f=u+iv and f*=u-iv are analytic. Use Cauchy-Riemann on both of them.
I figured it out. Thanks! That was very helpful.
 
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well i figured it out using the hint too,but i didn't have to use the fact that modulus of f is constant on D.i just used the cauchy-riemann eqns from f=u+iv;
du/dx=dv/dy and from f*=u-iv; du/dx=-dv/dy hence du/dx =0, and found the partial derivatives to be zero and so f has to be constant.so where do we use the modulus of f being constant?is it when we show the analyticity of f*?
maybe it's something like that if f is analytic then 1/f is also analytic so f*=a.1/f is also analytic where a is modulus of f.but i don't know anything about the analyticity of 1/f and can't we just prove it using u and v?
-it became kind of long and sort of complicated so sorry if it's not understandable.
 
bluenickel said:
well i figured it out using the hint too,but i didn't have to use the fact that modulus of f is constant on D.i just used the cauchy-riemann eqns from f=u+iv;
du/dx=dv/dy and from f*=u-iv; du/dx=-dv/dy hence du/dx =0, and found the partial derivatives to be zero and so f has to be constant.so where do we use the modulus of f being constant?is it when we show the analyticity of f*?
maybe it's something like that if f is analytic then 1/f is also analytic so f*=a.1/f is also analytic where a is modulus of f.but i don't know anything about the analyticity of 1/f and can't we just prove it using u and v?
-it became kind of long and sort of complicated so sorry if it's not understandable.

Yes, you use |f|=constant to prove f* is analytic. The problem is that |f| isn't generally an analytic function. A constant IS analytic.
 
but i don't know anything about the analyticity of 1/f and can't we just prove it using u and v?p

You should know something about the analyticity of f! Just from the normal quotient rule that you have from real analysis

In general: If |f| is not constant, then it's probably not analytic. Also f* is almost never analytic, you just have a very special case here (in fact you can show that the function that takes z to its complex conjugate is not analytic)
 
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yes,this is really easy with quotient rule.thanks for the help!
 
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