MHB Complex real function u when f = u + iv

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The discussion centers on finding the real functions \(u\) and \(v\) such that \(f(z) = \arctan(z) = u + iv\). Participants explore representations of \(\arctan(z)\) and discuss the incorrect assertion that \(\arctan(z) = \frac{1}{z}\). The identity \(\tan^{-1} z = \frac{i}{2} \ln \frac{1 - iz}{1 + iz}\) is suggested as a more appropriate approach, leading to separating real and imaginary parts. There is a focus on manipulating the tangent function and understanding the logarithmic terms involved in deriving the real part of \(\arctan(z)\). The conversation highlights the complexity of extracting real and imaginary components from the function.
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Find the real functions \(u\) and \(v\) such that \(f = u + iv\) for \(f(z) = \arctan(z)\).
Does below work or make sense to do?
\[
\arctan(z) = \frac{1}{z} = \frac{1}{x+iy} = \frac{x}{x^2 + y^2} - i\frac{y}{x^2 + y^2}
\]
 
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Re: complex real function u when f = u + iv

dwsmith said:
Find the real functions \(u\) and \(v\) such that \(f = u + iv\) for \(f(z) = \arctan(z)\).
Does below work or make sense to do?
\[
\arctan(z) = \frac{1}{z} = \frac{1}{x+iy} = \frac{x}{x^2 + y^2} - i\frac{y}{x^2 + y^2}
\]

May be it has more sense the identity...

$\displaystyle \tan^{-1} z = \frac{i}{2}\ \ln \frac{1 - i\ z}{1 + i\ z}\ (1)$

Now set in (1) $z = x + i\ y$ and separe the real and imaginary parts...

Kind regards

$\chi$ $\sigma$
 
Re: complex real function u when f = u + iv

dwsmith said:
Find the real functions \(u\) and \(v\) such that \(f = u + iv\) for \(f(z) = \arctan(z)\).
Does below work or make sense to do?
\[
\arctan(z) = \frac{1}{z} = \frac{1}{x+iy} = \frac{x}{x^2 + y^2} - i\frac{y}{x^2 + y^2}
\]
\arctan(z)= \frac{1}{z} certainly does NOT make sense- it is not true. What made you write that?
 
dwsmith said:
Find the real functions \(u\) and \(v\) such that \(f = u + iv\) for \(f(z) = \arctan(z)\).
Does below work or make sense to do?
\[
\arctan(z) = \frac{1}{z} = \frac{1}{x+iy} = \frac{x}{x^2 + y^2} - i\frac{y}{x^2 + y^2}
\]

I'd consider writing \displaystyle \begin{align*} z = x + i\,y \end{align*}, then \displaystyle \begin{align*} f(z) = u(x,y) + i\,v(x,y) \end{align*}, then

\displaystyle \begin{align*} \arctan{ (x + i\,y) } &= u + i\,v \\ x + i\,y &= \tan{ \left( u + i\,v \right) } \end{align*}

and trying to manipulate the tangent function so you can write it in terms of its real and imaginary parts...
 
Re: complex real function u when f = u + iv

chisigma said:
May be it has more sense the identity...

$\displaystyle \tan^{-1} z = \frac{i}{2}\ \ln \frac{1 - i\ z}{1 + i\ z}\ (1)$

Now set in (1) $z = x + i\ y$ and separe the real and imaginary parts...

Kind regards

$\chi$ $\sigma$

In doing so, we have
\[
\frac{i}{2}\ln(1 + y - ix) - \frac{i}{2}\ln(1 - y + ix)
\]
Let \(z_1 = 1 + y - ix\) and \(z_2 = 1 - y + ix\).
Then \(\lvert z_1\rvert = \sqrt{(1 + y)^2 + x^2}\), \(\varphi_1 = -\arctan\left(\frac{x}{1 + y}\right)\), \(\lvert z_2\rvert = \sqrt{(1 - y)^2 + x^2}\), and \(\varphi_2 = -\arctan\left(\frac{x}{1 - y}\right)\).

Mathematica has that one term of the real part is
\[
\frac{1}{4}\text{Im}\left(\ln\left[\frac{(1 + y)^2 + x^2}{(1 - y)^2 + x^2}\right]\right)
\]
but when is the argument of the ln imaginary? Is it ever?
 
Last edited:
\(\DeclareMathOperator{\Arg}{Arg}\)
How do I go from
\[\frac{i}{4}\ln\Bigg[\frac{(1 + y)^2 + x^2}{(1 - y)^2 + x^2}\Bigg] -
\frac{1}{2}\Arg\bigg[\frac{1 + y - ix}{1 - y + ix}\bigg]
\]
to the real part is
\[
\frac{1}{2} \left(-\arg \left(\frac{\sqrt{x^2+(y+1)^2}}{\sqrt{x^2+(y-1)^2}}\right)-\arg \left(-1-\frac{2}{-i x+y-1}\right)\right)
\]
More specifically, how is \(-\arg \left(\frac{\sqrt{x^2+(y+1)^2}}{\sqrt{x^2+(y-1)^2}}\right)\) obtained?
 
Last edited:
You titled this "complex function". But it appears you are trying to solve the equation arctan(z)= 1/z. Is that correct?
 
HallsofIvy said:
You titled this "complex function". But it appears you are trying to solve the equation arctan(z)= 1/z. Is that correct?

No.

I want to find the real and imaginary parts of \(\arctan(z)\). I came up with the \(\frac{1}{z}\) by using a right triangle; however, that was noted to be incorrect. I have the form of \(\arctan(z)\) but I don't know how Mathematica achieved part of its real part solution which I asked in my next most recent post.
 

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