Computing The Gravitational Force At A Point

AI Thread Summary
The discussion focuses on computing the gravitational field at a point on the perpendicular bisector of two equal masses separated by a distance of 2a. The gravitational force expression initially proposed was incorrect due to dimensional inconsistencies, prompting a reevaluation of the force components. As the distance r approaches zero, the gravitational forces from both masses cancel each other out, leading to a field that approaches zero. Conversely, as r approaches infinity, the gravitational field magnitude approaches 2*(GM/r^2), which is mathematically validated through proper force vector calculations. The conversation emphasizes the importance of correctly determining force components and understanding the physical implications of gravitational fields in different limits.
Bashyboy
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Homework Statement


(a) Compute the vector gravitational field at a point P on the perpendicular bisector of the line joining two objects of equal mass separated by a distance 2a as shown in Figure P13.26. (b) Explain physically why the field should approach zero as r ---> 0. (c) Prove mathematically that the answer to part (a) behaves in this way. (d) Explain physically why the magnitude of the field should approach 2*(GM/r^2) as r --> infinity. (e) Prove mathematically that the answer to part (a) behaves correctly in this limit.


Homework Equations





The Attempt at a Solution



\vec{F}_0 = -2 \frac{Gmm_p}{\sqrt{r^2 + a^2}} \hat{i} is the equation I generated.

From the diagram, it is evident that, as r approaches zero, the point of interest becomes located in between the two fixed masses; furthermore, one can see that the two masses with pull equally in the j-hat direction, but anti-parallel, thereby causing all gravitational forces produced by the two masses to cancel. However, why is it that, when taking the limit as r --> 0, the mathematics does not show this?
 

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Your expression for the force is not dimensionally consistent, and so must be wrong. (You need GMm divided by a length squared; you have GMm divided by a length.)

It's usual to use M for the mass of fixed bodies and m for the mass of a test particle.

For each body, you need to determine the component in the \hat i direction of a force of magnitude GMm/(r^2 + a^2) directed along the line from (r,0) to the centre of the relevant body, and then add the two.
 
Okay, I see that there shouldn't be a square root symbol in the denominator; however, I don't see what else is wrong with it. Both bodies pull equally in the -\hat{i} direction.
 
Bashyboy said:
Okay, I see that there shouldn't be a square root symbol in the denominator; however, I don't see what else is wrong with it. Both bodies pull equally in the -\hat{i} direction.

Both bodies pull directly towards themselves. So, two force vectors, neither of which is directed along the -\hat{i} direction. What's the vector resultant?
 
All right, let's see if I have properly determined the forces this time.

For one mass: \vec{F}_M = - \cos \theta \frac{GMm}{a^2 + r^2} \hat{i}, where \theta = arrcos(\frac{r}{\sqrt{r^2 + a^2}})

Is this correct?
 
Last edited:
Bashyboy said:
All right, let's see if I have properly determined the forces this time.

For one mass: \vec{F}_M = - \cos \theta \frac{GMm}{a^2 + r^2} \hat{i}, where \theta = arrcos(\frac{r}{\sqrt{r^2 + a^2}})

Is this correct?

Yes.
 
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