Is the derivative of f(x) = log(base 5) x equal to 1/(x * ln(5))?

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courtrigrad
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Hello all

I was just wondering whether this is acceptable:

f(x) = log (base 5) x.

f' '(x) = 1 / x * log (base 5) e.

Any responses are greatly appreciated!
 
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Well I don't actually see a method here, try and work it out:

y= \log_a (x)

a^y = x

\ln (a) a^y \frac{dy}{dx} = 1

\frac{dy}{dx} = \frac{1}{\ln (a) a^y}

\frac{dy}{dx} = \frac{1}{\ln (a) a^{\log_a (x)}}

\frac{dy}{dx} = \frac{1}{\ln (a) x}
 
but ln(5)= 1/ log5(e) so if courtrigrad meant

\frac{1}{x log_5(e)}

that's completely correct.
 
I think this is it.

log(base 5)x=ln(x)/ln(5)
d/dx(ln(x)/ln(5)=1/(ln(5)x)

If not, then I'll hit myself over the head with my Calc book.

EDIT: I guess somebody pretty much said the same thing before I did... sorry.
 
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