Conservation of Momentum, Question Regarding Force

AI Thread Summary
The discussion centers on the conservation of momentum and the forces involved during collisions. It explains that momentum conservation arises from Newton's Third Law, where forces between two colliding objects are equal and opposite. The conversation questions whether the force in a collision is the same as the normal force, concluding that it is not, as normal force only counteracts gravity in static situations. A scenario is presented to illustrate how to calculate momentum, emphasizing that total momentum is conserved regardless of individual object momentum changes. Understanding the nature of the collision is crucial for determining specific outcomes.
RoyalFlush100
Messages
56
Reaction score
2
So I read that the conservation of momentum is a result of:
F1=-F2 <Newton's Third Law
t1=t2 <Time in contact
Therefore:
F1*t1=-F2*t2

F=m(Δv/t)
Ft=mΔv

So we can conclude:
m1Δv1=-m2Δv2
Therefore momentum is conserved.

Now what force is this? Would it be the same normal force that exists when an object is sitting on a surface? I don't think that would make sense, because normal force simply counteracts other forces (such as gravity) when objects are in contact, yet an object moving in inertia wouldn't have any applied force, so it wouldn't be counteracting anything. So then, what is this force that opposes objects' motion as a collision occurs between masses?
 
Physics news on Phys.org
RoyalFlush100 said:
Now what force is this?
Any force between two objects.

RoyalFlush100 said:
because normal force simply counteracts other forces (such as gravity) when objects are in contact, yet an object moving in inertia wouldn't have any applied force, so it wouldn't be counteracting anything.
This is not true in general. You are probably thinking of a static situation.
 
Orodruin said:
Any force between two objects.This is not true in general. You are probably thinking of a static situation.
So say a scenario like this exists:
Object A is moving at 10 m/s towards Object B, while Object B is moving at 15 m/s towards Object A. Both objects have a mass of 1 kg.
How do we know what each object's individual momentum will be then? All the questions I was given in class had some info about at least one of the objects both before and after impact.

Would it depend on how long the contact occurred for? Like this, say contact lasted for 2 seconds:
(10-15)/2=-2.5 Newtons of force on object A, meaning:
-2.5=1*a
a=-2.5 m/s^2
That's applied for 2 seconds:
-2.5*2=-5, meaning object A will slow down to 5 m/s (10-5=5)
 
Last edited:
RoyalFlush100 said:
Would it depend on how long the contact occurred for?
Yes, that is precisely one of the two reasons that seatbelts and airbags save lives.
 
RoyalFlush100 said:
How do we know what each object's individual momentum will be then?
You dont, not without more information. What you do know is that total momentum is conserved. You will have to look at the particular nature of the collision (eg, elastic, completely inelastic, etc) to draw more conclusions.
 
The rope is tied into the person (the load of 200 pounds) and the rope goes up from the person to a fixed pulley and back down to his hands. He hauls the rope to suspend himself in the air. What is the mechanical advantage of the system? The person will indeed only have to lift half of his body weight (roughly 100 pounds) because he now lessened the load by that same amount. This APPEARS to be a 2:1 because he can hold himself with half the force, but my question is: is that mechanical...
Hello everyone, Consider the problem in which a car is told to travel at 30 km/h for L kilometers and then at 60 km/h for another L kilometers. Next, you are asked to determine the average speed. My question is: although we know that the average speed in this case is the harmonic mean of the two speeds, is it also possible to state that the average speed over this 2L-kilometer stretch can be obtained as a weighted average of the two speeds? Best regards, DaTario
Some physics textbook writer told me that Newton's first law applies only on bodies that feel no interactions at all. He said that if a body is on rest or moves in constant velocity, there is no external force acting on it. But I have heard another form of the law that says the net force acting on a body must be zero. This means there is interactions involved after all. So which one is correct?
Back
Top