Miike012
- 1,009
- 0
my book says, the function y = x*sin(1/x) is not continuous at x = 0, however by defining a new function by
F(x) =
x*sin(1/x) , x ≠ 0
0 , x = 0
then F is continuous at x = 0.
This does not make sense to me because the limit as x → 0 is equal to 1, not zero, so therefore there would be a jump discountinuity at x = 0.
unless my calculus is wrong or my understanding is wrong... but isn't
Lim [x*sin(1/x)] = Lim [(x/x)*sin(1/x)/(1/x)] = (1)*(1) = 1 as x approaches zero.
x → 0
F(x) =
x*sin(1/x) , x ≠ 0
0 , x = 0
then F is continuous at x = 0.
This does not make sense to me because the limit as x → 0 is equal to 1, not zero, so therefore there would be a jump discountinuity at x = 0.
unless my calculus is wrong or my understanding is wrong... but isn't
Lim [x*sin(1/x)] = Lim [(x/x)*sin(1/x)/(1/x)] = (1)*(1) = 1 as x approaches zero.
x → 0