LaplacianHarmonic
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Let's say 5 masses are arranged on x axis.
At x=1, 2kg
X=2, 4kg
X=3, 6kg
X=4, 8kg
X=5, 10 kg
Obviously, there is a total mass of 30 kgIf the mass is distributed continuously by the function M(x) = 2x, then
From x= 0 to x=5, there is 25 kg of mass from the simple integral.
WHY IS THERE LESS MASS for the continuous mass distribution than the 5 pint masses that equal up to 30kg?
is there NOT more mass for the continuous mass distribution than the 5 finite point masses? (In between the integers along the x axis?)
At x=1, 2kg
X=2, 4kg
X=3, 6kg
X=4, 8kg
X=5, 10 kg
Obviously, there is a total mass of 30 kgIf the mass is distributed continuously by the function M(x) = 2x, then
From x= 0 to x=5, there is 25 kg of mass from the simple integral.
WHY IS THERE LESS MASS for the continuous mass distribution than the 5 pint masses that equal up to 30kg?
is there NOT more mass for the continuous mass distribution than the 5 finite point masses? (In between the integers along the x axis?)