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If I take F(x)=\sqrt{1+x^2}, then the derivative is always less than one so this is a contraction mapping from R to R, right?
But there is no fixed point where F(x)=x, where the contraction mapping theorem says there should be.
So where have I gone wrong?
Cheers
But there is no fixed point where F(x)=x, where the contraction mapping theorem says there should be.
So where have I gone wrong?
Cheers