Convergence for Infinite Series

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the convergence of the infinite series \(\frac{1}{1 \cdot 2} + \frac{1}{2 \cdot 3} + \frac{1}{3 \cdot 4} + \frac{1}{4 \cdot 5} + \ldots\). Participants are exploring the nature of the series and how to determine its convergence.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Mathematical reasoning, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss using partial fractions to rewrite the terms of the series and consider the properties of telescoping series. There are questions about how to derive the nth partial sum and the limit involved in determining convergence.

Discussion Status

Some participants have provided guidance on using partial fractions and telescoping series, while others are still clarifying their understanding of the series' terms and convergence. Multiple interpretations of the series notation have been raised, indicating an ongoing exploration of the problem.

Contextual Notes

There is some confusion regarding the notation used for multiplication in the series, which has led to different interpretations of the series being discussed. Participants are also noting the lack of explanations in the original source material.

roam
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1. Examine the series [tex]\frac{1}{1 . 2} +[/tex][tex]\frac{1}{2 . 3}+[/tex][tex]\frac{1}{3 . 4}+[/tex][tex]\frac{1}{4 . 5}...[/tex] for convergence.



3. The Attempt at a Solution

The following is the book's answer:

"[tex]lim_{n\rightarrow \infty}S_{n}[/tex]
[tex]lim_{n\rightarrow \infty} (1 - \frac{1}{n + 1}) = 1 - 0 = 1[/tex]
Hence the series converge and its sum is 1. "


From [tex]S_{n} =[/tex][tex]\frac{1}{1 . 2} +[/tex][tex]\frac{1}{2 . 3}+[/tex][tex]\frac{1}{3 . 4}+[/tex][tex]\frac{1}{4 . 5}...[/tex]

I can see that the nth term is [tex]\frac{1}{n . (n+1)}[/tex] but I can't follow how the book's obtained the "[tex]1 - \frac{1}{n + 1}[/tex]" or th nth partial sum.

I appreciate some help. Unfortunently there are no explanations in the book on this question.

 
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try splitting [itex]\frac{1}{n . (n+1)}[/itex] into partial fractions, then use the property of a telescoping series.
 
try splitting [itex]\frac{1}{n . (n+1)}[/itex] into partial fractions, then use the property of a telescoping series.

Is this correct:

[tex](\frac{1}{1} \times \frac{1}{2}) + (\frac{1}{2} \times \frac{1}{3}) + (\frac{1}{3} \times \frac{1}{4}) + (\frac{1}{4} \times \frac{1}{5}) + ... + (\frac{1}{n} \times \frac{1}{n + 1})[/tex]

I still don't understand how to reach [tex]1 - \frac{1}{n + 1}[/tex]
 
Did you rewrite 1/[n(n+1)] using partial fractions? Doesn't seem like you have. You just wrote out the first few terms and the n-th term.
 
[tex]\frac{1}{n(n+1)}=\frac{1}{n}-\frac{1}{n+1}[/tex]

Now you got:

[tex](1 - \frac{1}{2})+(\frac{1}{2}-\frac{1}{3})+(\frac{1}{3}-\frac{1}{4})+...+(\frac{1}{n}-\frac{1}{n+1})[/tex]

What can you assume?
 
Oh, thanks. Now I understand what rockfreak was saying about splitting it into partial fractions.


[tex](1 - \frac{1}{2})+(\frac{1}{2}-\frac{1}{3})+(\frac{1}{3}-\frac{1}{4})+...+(\frac{1}{n}-\frac{1}{n+1})[/tex]

What can you assume?

Now I can test for convergence in [tex]lim_{n \rightarrow \infty}(\frac{1}{n} - \frac{1}{n+a})[/tex] but the book says we need to have "[tex]1 - \frac{1}{n+1}[/tex]" & I'm not sure where I can find it from.
 
No... look at what he wrote you see how for -1/2 there's a 1/2, for -1/3 there's a 1/3, etc. so what are you left with?

I believe the original post gave you 2 suggestions:
1) Use partial fractions.
2) Use properties of telescoping series.

1) was done for you by the Russian devil, now do part 2)
 
Yes, they will cancel out and the series simply equal 1 therefore the series converge to one. I'll go & try some more examples & hopefully I think I learned the idea of "telescoping series"!

Thanks very much :)
 
roam said:
Yes, they will cancel out and the series simply equal 1 therefore the series converge to one. I'll go & try some more examples & hopefully I think I learned the idea of "telescoping series"!

Thanks very much :)

No, look again.

There are [itex]1 + \frac{1}{n+1}[/itex] left.

Now you got [tex]\lim_{n \rightarrow \infty}(1 + \frac{1}{n+1})[/tex].

Because [tex]\lim_{n \rightarrow \infty}(\frac{1}{n+1})=0[/tex]

you got what? :smile: (rhyme)
 
Last edited:
  • #10
Дьявол said:
[tex]\frac{1}{n(n+1)}=\frac{1}{n}-\frac{1}{n+1}[/tex]

Hold on here for a moment!

:bugeye:

In the original post i can see that the series is actually

[tex]\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac{1}{n.(n+1)}=\frac{1}{1.2}+\frac{1}{2.3}+\frac{1}{3.4}+...[/tex]

and not

[tex]\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac{1}{n(n+1)}=\frac{1}{1*2}+\frac{1}{2*3}+\frac{1}{3*4}+...[/tex]

There is a difference, don't u think? There certainly is a difference, unless the OP actually wanted to write the second one.

(To the OP:which one is it?)
 
  • #11
He meant . as a a multiplication symbol, what he probably should have used was \cdot
 
  • #12
NoMoreExams said:
He meant . as a a multiplication symbol, what he probably should have used was \cdot

Well, yeah, that's what i was thinking too, since it isn't that easy to evaluate the sum of the other seires, unless we sought for some relation to a specific case of a Taylor expansion, or something like that.
 
  • #13
Hi StupidMath! Yes, like NomoreExams said I meant a multiplication symbol.


Sorry Dyavol, I forgot.

[tex]lim_{n\rightarrow \infty} (1 - \frac{1}{n+1}) = 1 - 0 = 1[/tex]

Hence the series converges and its sum is 1.
 

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