Correcting Misconceptions about the Frequency of RF Pulses in MRI

AI Thread Summary
The discussion clarifies the relationship between the Larmor frequency (ω0) and the frequency of the RF pulse (ω1) in MRI. It explains that the precession of protons occurs at a much higher frequency due to the static magnetic field (B0), while the RF pulse operates at a significantly lower frequency. The confusion arose from conflating these two frequencies, which are driven by different magnetic field strengths. The resolution highlights the importance of understanding the distinct roles of B0 and B1 in MRI. Overall, the participants emphasize the necessity of recognizing these differences to avoid misconceptions in MRI physics.
BobP
Messages
70
Reaction score
1
The magnetic moment of protons precesses at a frequency ω0=γB0 about the static magnetic field.

In order to move the magnetisation vector into the transverse plane the RF pulse must be applied at a frequency
ω0. However, as B1 (the field strength of the RF pulse) is << B1 how is this possible (as ω0=γB0 >> ω1=γB1)

Does this makes sense. Please can someone explain where I am going wrong
Thanks
 
Physics news on Phys.org
I presume that, as with any resonant system, a small disturbance at the resonant frequency will add a little energy each cycle until the cumulative effect is large. The resonant system will store energy from the RF field over many cycles.
 
BobP said:
The magnetic moment of protons precesses at a frequency ω0=γB0 about the static magnetic field.

In order to move the magnetisation vector into the transverse plane the RF pulse must be applied at a frequency
ω0. However, as B1 (the field strength of the RF pulse) is << B1 how is this possible (as ω0=γB0 >> ω1=γB1)

Does this makes sense. Please can someone explain where I am going wrong
Thanks
I am not sure what you are asking. There are two motions that are important here. One is the precession, that is driven by B0 and so by the Larmor equation it is typically in the 100 MHz range. The other is nutation, that is driven by B1 and is typically in the 100 Hz range. This corresponds to the fact that the B0 field is in the Tesla range while the B1 field is in the micro Tesla range.
 
Dale said:
I am not sure what you are asking. There are two motions that are important here. One is the precession, that is driven by B0 and so by the Larmor equation it is typically in the 100 MHz range. The other is nutation, that is driven by B1 and is typically in the 100 Hz range. This corresponds to the fact that the B0 field is in the Tesla range while the B1 field is in the micro Tesla range.
My question was based on a misunderstanding of the difference between frequency of the RF pulse and Larmor frequency.
I foolishky assumed they were the same which is why I was confused. However problem is now fixed :)

Thanks for your help though :)
 
Thread 'Inducing EMF Through a Coil: Understanding Flux'
Thank you for reading my post. I can understand why a change in magnetic flux through a conducting surface would induce an emf, but how does this work when inducing an emf through a coil? How does the flux through the empty space between the wires have an effect on the electrons in the wire itself? In the image below is a coil with a magnetic field going through the space between the wires but not necessarily through the wires themselves. Thank you.
Thread 'Griffith, Electrodynamics, 4th Edition, Example 4.8. (Second part)'
I am reading the Griffith, Electrodynamics book, 4th edition, Example 4.8. I want to understand some issues more correctly. It's a little bit difficult to understand now. > Example 4.8. Suppose the entire region below the plane ##z=0## in Fig. 4.28 is filled with uniform linear dielectric material of susceptibility ##\chi_e##. Calculate the force on a point charge ##q## situated a distance ##d## above the origin. In the page 196, in the first paragraph, the author argues as follows ...
Back
Top