Are Both Eigenvectors Correct?

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Both calculated eigenvectors for a given eigenvalue are valid, as multiplying an eigenvector by a scalar produces another eigenvector. The example given shows that \(\begin{bmatrix} 1 \\ \frac{1}{3} \end{bmatrix}\) and \(\begin{bmatrix} 3 \\ 1 \end{bmatrix}\) are equivalent representations. It is common practice to scale eigenvectors to make their entries integers for clarity. This scaling does not affect their correctness as eigenvectors. Therefore, both answers are correct in the context of eigenvector calculations.
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say for example when I calculate an eigenvector for a particular eigenvalue and get something like
\begin{bmatrix}<br /> 1\\<br /> \frac{1}{3}<br /> \end{bmatrix}

but the answers on the book are

\begin{bmatrix}<br /> 3\\<br /> 1<br /> \end{bmatrix}

Would my answers still be considered correct?
 
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Yes, multiplying an eigenvector with a scalar yields another eigenvector (makes kind of sense right? Think about the definition). Usually people will multiply the result with whatever scalar makes all the entries integers for representation purposes, but both results are correct.
 
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