Counting Principles: All Surjections from A to B

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Homework Statement



Count all surjections of A to B, (f: A ---> B) where |A| = |B| + 1

Homework Equations



None? This is just a problem I came across online.

The Attempt at a Solution



I'm really not sure. This isn't technically homework, but I'm just looking for a good method. I thought maybe the pigeonhole principle might help?
 
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StopWatch said:

Homework Statement



Count all surjections of A to B, (f: A ---> B) where |A| = |B| + 1

Homework Equations



None? This is just a problem I came across online.

The Attempt at a Solution



I'm really not sure. This isn't technically homework, but I'm just looking for a good method. I thought maybe the pigeonhole principle might help?

If |B|=n is finite, then there are n*n*(n-1)*(n-2)*...*1 ways to arrange n+1 object ONTO n slots; if |B| is infinite, then the answer is uncountable
 
Do you mean n+1 x n x n-1 etc. ? And don't worry they're finite, thanks for the response.
 
Also could you point me to somewhere that would prove why this is true?
 
StopWatch said:

Homework Statement



Count all surjections of A to B, (f: A ---> B) where |A| = |B| + 1

Homework Equations



None? This is just a problem I came across online.

The Attempt at a Solution



I'm really not sure. This isn't technically homework, but I'm just looking for a good method. I thought maybe the pigeonhole principle might help?
Here's a somewhat easier problem that may help.

Count the surjections of C to B, (f: C → B) where |C| = |B| .
 
StopWatch said:
Also could you point me to somewhere that would prove why this is true?

My apologies, the answer should be (n+1)!*n/2, because you first choose 2 element to map to a single slot, that is (n+1)n/2, then you permute the n groups of elements onto n slot, that's n!, so the total is (n+1)!*n/2
 
sunjin09 said:
My apologies, the answer should be (n+1)!*n/2, because you first choose 2 element to map to a single slot, that is (n+1)n/2, then you permute the n groups of elements onto n slot, that's n!, so the total is (n+1)!*n/2
An important principle of these Forums is to help those who post questions to discover the solutions for themselves. It's not to give the answers.

See the link: https://www.physicsforums.com/showthread.php?t=414380. In particular, look at "Homework Help."
 
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