De Broglie wavelength and atom penetration

Bakery87
Messages
10
Reaction score
0

Homework Statement



Calculate the de broglie wavelength (DBW) of an electron with kinetic energy 60 GeV.

What percentage of an atom's diameter can it penetrate?


Homework Equations



DBW = h/p
p=mv


The Attempt at a Solution



Basically I have an electron traveling at the speed of light. I arrived at this from its kinetic energy (60 GeV) and by using the relativistic K-energy equation. So I get it's de broglie wavelength fairly easily (I have this part done).

The part I don't understand is the penetration. I guess I just need some guidance/equations. Any ideas?
 
Physics news on Phys.org
Welcome to PF, Barkery87.

For an atom's diameter, they might mean take the diameter of the Bohr model for the hydrogen atom in its ground state. What percentage of that diameter is the deBroglie wavelength?

p.s.
Um, you didn't use the electron's rest mass to calculate p=mv, did you?
 
I used 0.511003 MeV/c^2
 
Momentum is calculated differently for relativistic motion. There should be a formula in your textbook or lecture notes, relating E, p, and m (the rest mass, sometimes called m0)
 
I did find something...

p = K/c

I'm still looking through my notes.
 
Bakery87 said:
p = K/c

Actually, that's a valid approximation for extremely relativistic situations (like this one).
 
Thread 'Need help understanding this figure on energy levels'
This figure is from "Introduction to Quantum Mechanics" by Griffiths (3rd edition). It is available to download. It is from page 142. I am hoping the usual people on this site will give me a hand understanding what is going on in the figure. After the equation (4.50) it says "It is customary to introduce the principal quantum number, ##n##, which simply orders the allowed energies, starting with 1 for the ground state. (see the figure)" I still don't understand the figure :( Here is...
Thread 'Understanding how to "tack on" the time wiggle factor'
The last problem I posted on QM made it into advanced homework help, that is why I am putting it here. I am sorry for any hassle imposed on the moderators by myself. Part (a) is quite easy. We get $$\sigma_1 = 2\lambda, \mathbf{v}_1 = \begin{pmatrix} 0 \\ 0 \\ 1 \end{pmatrix} \sigma_2 = \lambda, \mathbf{v}_2 = \begin{pmatrix} 1/\sqrt{2} \\ 1/\sqrt{2} \\ 0 \end{pmatrix} \sigma_3 = -\lambda, \mathbf{v}_3 = \begin{pmatrix} 1/\sqrt{2} \\ -1/\sqrt{2} \\ 0 \end{pmatrix} $$ There are two ways...
Back
Top